SS1 Examination Questions For First Term

Senior High School Exam Ist term. Year 10/SS1 Examination Questions for first term all subjects objectives and theory answers-Edudelight Exam

Agricultural Science SS1 Examination Questions For First Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S.S 1

AGRICULTURAL – SCIENCE

SECTION A OBJECTIVES

“AGER” means (a). read (b). field (c). seed
“CULTURA” means (a). Culta (b). cultivation (c). cultivator
Agriculture is derived from ………… word (a). Senegal (b). Nigerian (c). latin
Art and science that deals with the rearing of animals and planting of crops for man use are ………… (a). animal science (b). crop science (c). agricultural science
Agriculture has other purposes except rearing of animals and crop planting (a). true (b). false
Agriculture contributes to the maintaining of Nigeria economy and other developing activities True / False
………… is provided by Agriculture e.g. Meat, Yam, Milk (a). food (b). work (c). clothing
………… Is used for the production of clothing (a). skin and Hides (b). hide and seek (c). cat and dogs
Agriculture creates ……………. For labour (a). taxes (b). lapses (c). employment
Development comes to existence when ………. Is available in a place (a). social tradition (b). social amenities (c). social calling
Game reserves / horse races and polo are examples of ……….. (a). recreation and tourism (b). recreation and laity (c). laity and recreat
……… is used in a beverage industry (a). locoat (b). cocoa (c). sugar
…………. Is used in oil mill industry (a). oil meat (b). pulp wood (c). oil seed
Fruit canning industries makes use of ……………. (a). tofu (b). fruits (c). camels
………….. is used in tyre industries (a). tyre dogs (b). tyrein (c). rubber latex
…………. Is used in soap industry (a). meal (b). oil (c). vegetable
……………. Is a branch of specialization in Agriculture (a). Agric Soccer (b). Animal Science (c). Crop Volley
Cocoa, cotton ground are sources of ……………. For Nigeria (a). capital (b). fore man (c). foreign
…………….. is a branch of agriculture that provides a better health management for farm animals (a). soil science (b). crop production (c). veterinary medicine
…………………….. is a branch of agriculture that ensures efficient and effective management of farm animals (a). agricultural economics (b). animal science (c). fishery
…………. Is the branch that deals with the production of honey (a). horticulture (b). aliculture (c). apiculture
…………… is a branch that deals with the production of snails (a). deliculture (b). culticulture (c). heliculture
…………….. is a branch that deals with fish production and other aquatic animals (a). thiefry (b). fishery (c). cufery
Cotton, latex, palm oil, cocoa are referred to as ………………… (a). agricultural lots (b). agricultural raw material (c). agricultural sync
Fruits and milk and all other perishable goods needs to be ……………… properly (a). stored (b). thrown (c). looked
Modern ways of making agriculture operation easier is by using ………….. (a). agricultural paste (b). agricultural machine (c). agricultural tools
……….. are used in the olden days by the early men (a). hunting and gathering of fruits (b). crop rotation and pastoral farming (c). mixed farming and mixed cropping
No surplus of produced for sale is a problem in ……………. (a). commercial farming (b). subsistence farming (c). mixed farming
Subsistence farming is concentrated on ……………….. (a). a farmer and his family (b). a farmer and his concubines (c). a farmer and public
Specialization is highly needed in …………….. (a). mechanic labour farming (b). commercial farming (c). subsistence farming
Illiteracy is a big problem in subsistence farming True / False
One of the problems of Agriculture is ……………………….. (a). adequate social amenities (b). inadequate finance (c). good roads
………….. is a problem in Agriculture in Nigeria (a). good governance (b). handsome president (c). poor transportation Network
Fertilizer, herbicides, seed are called ………….. (a). farm metaphor (b). farm ethics (c). farm inputs
………….. is good and pleasant for a commercial farmer (a). far distance to raw materials (b). disease invasion (c). high yield of produce
NAIDA is an abbreviation of (a). Nigerian Agura Land Deviation Agency (b). Natonal Agriculatural Land Development Agency (c). Nigerian Animal Lacks Diseases Amen
OFN is an abbreviation of (a). Obafemi Festival News (b). Obasanjo Farms Nigeria (c). Operation Feed The Nation
ADP is an abbreviation of (a). Agricultural Development Project (b). Animal Don’t Party (c). Aunty Damitology Party
DFRRI is an abbreviation of (a). Directory of Foods, Rides and Rolls Industry (b). Directorate of Food, Road and Rural Infrastructure (c). Direct foot, road and rail industry
The roles of Non – governmental organization except (a). private establishment (b). not owned by the government (c). founded by the government
NGO’s in agriculture are not supposed to pay tax True / False
New Varieties of crops are developed mostly by (a) N. M. S. in Agriculture (b). NGO’s in Agriculture (c). Agricultural Banks
IFAD is an abbreviation for (a). Intentional Fowl Advocate Diseases (b). international Food and Agricultural Development (c). If Father Add Days
Extension workers are used to disseminate new ideas and information by NGO’s in other to ………………… (a). Scatter their heads (b). improve productivity of farmers (c). adjust to the old method
WARDA is an abbreviation of (a). West African Fight Deal Agura (b). West African Rice Development Agency (c). West and Ronge Dadilon Agura
Provision of ………….. aids Agriculture and industries to have common ground to show case their produce for sales (a). Market (b). Food (c). Class
Provision of ………. Makes available resources for use to produce finished goods. (a). Mattress (b). Raw Materials (c). Rice
Factors of production can be shifted to meet population demands True / False
Cereals are raw materials in ……………. Industries (a). diary (b). breweries (c). sugar
Pulpwood are raw materials in …………… industries (a). razor (b). can (c). paper
Mr. Shonekan rented a land for Agricultural use, this example has shown an agreement of ……………….. (a). communal conflict (b). communal tenure (c). land tenure by rent
Lease hold system is a special contract between …………… and ……………. (a). lenser and leenser (b). lace and Bricks (c). lease and Laasor
Land which is inherited by one’s parents from one generation to another is …………………….. (a). land tenure by maturity (b). land tenure by clamity (c). land tenure by inheritance
A situation whereby the land belongs to the entire community is called ………………… (a). catalysed indimentary (b). communal land tenure (c). land tenure by freewill
Fertilizer and manure ……………. Production of crops (a). increases (b). declines (c). in fluxing
One of the problems of agriculture is (a). creation of pipe borne water (c). cost of transportation (c). increase in farmers number
……………… gives loans to farmers (a). Fathers Bank (b). Agricultural Bank (c). Facility Bank
Agricultural machineries are called hoes, spares and shovels True / False
……………. Is used to propagate cassava (a). marcotting (b). cuttings (c). lofting
………………. crops is propagated by bulbs (a). vegetables (b). canian (c). onion

Objectives mark = 30 marks

THEORY

ANSWER THREE QUESTIONS

(30 marks)

State 10 problems of agriculture in Nigeria
State the 5 differences between subsistence and commercial farming
Give 10 branches of agriculture and state their functions as regarded in Agriculture
A. Define Land tenure system

B. Mention 6 classification of land tenure system in Nigeria

Agricultural Science Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1. B 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. False 6. True

7. A 8. A 9. C 10. B 11. A 12.B 13. C

14. B 15. C 16. B 17. B 18. A 19.C 20.B

21.C 22.C 23.B 24.B 25.A 26.B 27.A

28.A 29.A 30.B 31.True 32.B 33.C 34.C

35.C 36.B 37.C 38.A 39.B 40.C 41. False

42.B 43.B 44.B 45.B 46.A 47.B 48. TRUE

49.B 50.C 51.C 52.C 53.C 54.B 55.A

56.C 57.B 58.False 59.A 60.C

Biology SS1 Examination Questions For First Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

BIOLOGY

SECTION A

Instruction: Choose the correct option from the ones lettered A to D

____ is defined as a systematic process of making enquiry about the living things and non-living things in our environment. (a) environment (b) biology (c) science
The term Biology is coined from two Greek work bios meaning___ and Logos meaning ___ (a) logos, life (b) life, logos (c) life, study (d) study, life
______ is the study of animal, their behavior, feeding and life history (a) biology (b) zoology (c) botany
_____ is the study of different type of plant. (a) biology (b) zoology (c) botany
Which of the following is NOT a scientific process to enquire an object or thin (a) observation (b) hypothesis (c) projectile (d) experiment
Living things are those objects that have _____ (a) life (b) live (c) lives (c) liveth
Another name for Non-living things are called___ objects (a) liveless (b) lifeless (c) life (d) liveness
_____ is defined as the ability of a living organism to move its own body or part of its body from one place to another. (a) movement (b) respiration (c) nutrition (d) excretion
______ is defined as the ability of living organism to feed to enable them living to be able to carry out life functions such as growth, respiration and reproduction (a) movement (b) respiration (c) nutrition (d) excretion
_____ is defined as a process in which food substances within cell of living organism is oxidized in the presence of oxygen to release energy for all life process (a) movement (b) respiration (c) nutrition (d) excretion
_____ is defined as the removal of poisonous metabolic waste products from the body or cells of living organism if not excreted will damage the body cells (a) movement (b) respiration (c) nutrition (d) excretion
_____ is defined as a permanent increase in body and mass of an organism or increase in body complexity as a result of cell division and cell differentiation (a) movement (b) growth (c) nutrition (d) excretion
______ is the ability of living organisms to give rise to new offsprings which have the same characteristics as their parents. (a) reproduction (b) growth (c) nutrition (d) excretion
____ is defined as the ability of an organism to respond to changes in both internal and external stimuli (a) reproduction (b) growth (c) irritability (d) excretion
____ is defined as the way in which living organism get used to their various environment in such a manner that they are comfortable in order to survive (a) reproduction (b) growth (c) irritability (d) Adaptation
_____ is the ability of living things to struggle for all the necessities of life in order to survive in their various environment (a) competition (b) death (c) irritability (d) Adaptation
A____ Microscope is an instrument used to view or magnify organisms smaller that 0.001mm which cannot be seen by human naked eyes. (a) stethoscopes (b) microscope (c) telescope (c) statoscopes
Which of the following groups embraces the rest? (a) Class (b) Kingdom (c) Phylum (d) Species
Which of the following characteristics is not possessed by most plants? Ability to____ (a) move away from stimuli (b) respire (c) reproduce (d) adapt to the environment
Carbohydrates are stored in animal cells in form of (a) starch (b) glycogen (c) maltose (d) plastids
All living organisms (a) photosynthesis (b) respire (c) move (d) transpire
____ is defined as the arrangement of living things into groups based onstructural genetic and cellular organization (a) classification (b) organization (c) excretion (c) photosynthesis
Living things are first separated into large group called___ (a) order (b) kingdom (c) classification
A ____ is a population of related organism that can interbreed within themselves to produce a fertile offspring (a) offspring (b) kingdom (c) species (d) classes
Phyla are divided into smaller groups called____(a) offspring (b) kingdom (c) species (d) classes
Living things according to modern classification system which is based on physiology, biochemistry and embryology are classified into ___ kingdoms (a) three (b) five (c) six (d) two
The full meaning of DNA is ____(a) Deoxyribonucleic atom (b) Deoxyribonucleic acid (c) Deoxyribonucleic aquatic (d) Deoxyribonucleic atomic
_____ is scattered in the cytoplasm and not in nucleus hence they are called prokaryotes (a) Monera (b) Protocyista (c) Fungi (d) Plantae
____ have well organized DNA in the nucleus bounded by nuclear membrane hence they are called eukaryotes (a) Monera (b) Protocyista (c) Fungi (d) Plantae
_____ are simple multicellular organism that grow like plant but are not plant because they are not green in colour. (a) Monera (b) Protocyista (c) Fungi (d) Plantae
___ are multicellular and non-motile organisms cells are bounded by rigid cellulose cell walls external to cell membrane (a) Monera (b) Protocyista (c) Fungi (d) Plantae
The kingdom plantae is divided into ____ main phyla or Division (a) four (b) five (c) six (d) seven
____ are seed bearing plant- They have well-developed vascular bundles (a) Spermatophyta (b) Bryophyte (c) Thallophyta
____ are non-vascular multicellular plant – They have chlorophyll as the only photosynthetic pigment (a) Spermatophyta (b) Bryophyte (c) Thallophyta
___ are simple microscopic plant – They have no true root, stem and leaves. – They are found in aquatic habitat (a) Spermatophyta (b) Bryophyte (c) Thallophyta
____ have parallel veins Flowers are generally dull in colour. The size of cortex is narrow (a) Monocotylenoneae (b) Dicotyledoneae
_____Leaves have network veins Flowers are bright in colour The size of the cortex is wide narrow (a) Monocotylenoneae (b) Dicotyledoneae
_____ are plants that grow for three or more seasons or years e.g. shrub and three (a) perennials (b) biennials (c) annuals
____ are plants that grow for two seasons. The first year constitutes the vegetable stage during which the store of food material is built up (a) perennials (b) biennials (c) annuals
_____ are plants that have one growing season. They produce seeds during the first year of growing and then die off. (a) perennials (b) biennials (c) annuals
Examples are maize, Guinea corn, wheat, groundnut, bean belongs to _____ (a) perennials (b) biennials (c) annuals
Examples are cabbage, carrot, cocoyam, cassava e.t.c belongs to _______ (a) perennials (b) biennials (c) annuals
Examples are shrub and tree belongs to _____ (a) perennials (b) biennials (c) annuals
_____ is defined as an act of growing crops and rearing farm animals to provide man’s basic need (a) ecology (b) agriculture (c) biology
Most animals are derived from three germs layers ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm, such animal are called ____ animal (a) triploblastic (b) endosperm (c) catalyst
Animal without body cavity is called _____ (a) Acoelomate (b) Pseudo coelomate (c) Coelomate
Animal with false body cavity is called _____ (a) Acoelomate (b) Pseudo coelomate (c) Coelomate
Animal with true body cavity is called ______(a) Acoelomate (b) Pseudo coelomate (c) Coelomate
___ are fishes with bony skeleton e.g. Tilapia, Salmon, Mackerel e.t.c (a) bony fish (b) skinny fish (c) skeleton fish (d) cartilaginous fish
___ are fishes whose bones are soft e.g. dry fish, shark, rays e.t.c. c (a) bony fish (b) skinny fish (c) skeleton fish (d) cartilaginous fish
___ is the activity of preparing the soil for use and growing of crops for consumption, storage and processing (a) tillage (b) bush burning (c) fertilizer
___ is a natural or chemical substance which if spread on the land make plant grow well. (a) tillage (b) bush burning (c) fertilizer
_____ is a chemical compound used in agriculture to destroy organisms that can damage crops or stored food especially insect and rodent. (a) pesticides (b) insecticides (c) herbicide
___ This is a method of farming system which accommodates the division of land into sections and on a different land (a) bush burning (b) ecosystem (c) crop rotation (d) ecology
Which of these is the odd one out? (a) bat (b) shark (c) rat (d) whale
Angiosperm and Gymnosperms belong to the class (a) schizophyta (b) pteridophyta (c) spermatophyte (d) bryophyte
A distinguishing feature of mammals is the possession of (a) scale (b) skin (c) hair (d) nail
Insects and millipede have many features in common except (a) exoskeleton (b) jointed (c) compound eyes (d) segmented body
___ excretes liquid product such as dissolved ammonia and regulates amount of water and mineral salt that enter and leave the cell (a) Contractile Vacuole (b) Food Vacuole (c) Nucleus
____ is a pear or spindle shaped single celled organism. It is about 0.66mm in length with the widest width at the middle of the body (a) Euglena (b) ectoplasm (c) pellicle

Biology Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.C 3.B 4.C 5.C 6.A 7.B 8.A 9.C

10.B 11.D 12.B 13.A 14.C 15.D 16.A 17.B

18.B 19.A 20.B 21.C 22.A 23.B 24.C 25.D

26.B 27.B 28.A 29.B 30.C 31.D 32.A 33.A

34.B 35.C 36.A 37.B 38.A 39.B 40.C 41.C

42.B 43.A 44.B 45.A 46.A 47.B 48.C 49.A

50.D 51.A 52.C 53.A 54.C 55.A 56.C 57.B 58.B 59.A 60.A

THEORY – ANSWER ANY 6 QUESTIONS

Explain the term Biology
Highlights the branches of biology
Explain the term (i) Zoology (ii) Botany
Highlights some other aspects of biology
Define the following – ecology, ecosystem , pest
List types of plant pests
Make a labelled drawing of the lateral views of a fish
Define cell and list types of cell
Explain the following- diffusion, osmosis turgidity, flaccidity , mitosis , growth
Define Nutrition , list types of nutrition and explain it
Define the following, anabolism, photosynthesis,
Define food, state classes and explain
Define digestives enzymes , state four characteristics
Define respiration, state types and explain

Cratering Craft SS1 Examination Questions For First Term

S.S.S 1 (ONE)

CATERING CRAFT PRACTICES

OBJECTIVES

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS TIME: 1 HR 45 MIN

______can be defined as domestic fowls, including chickens, turkeys, geese and ducks, raised for the production of meat or eggs (a) primary (b) poultry (c) farming
____ is a broad term or collective name for those plants belonging to the grass family. (a) beverages (b) cereals (c) meal
The cereal, the seeds they produce are known as ____ (a) grains (b) meal (c) millet
Which of the following is NOT nutritive value of cereal? (a0 carbohydrate (b) vitamins (c) water
Poultry provides the human body with a range of nutrients and vitamins (a) True (b) False
____ are type of plants whose seeds grow in pods.(a) cereals (b) legumes (c) meal
____ are dried edible seeds of cultivated legumes e.g. beans, peas, lentils, etc. (a) pulses (b) oil feeds (c) legumes
____ are legumes grown and used for their oil content e.g. groundnuts (a) pulses (b) oil feeds (c) legumes
Which of the following is NOT nutritive value of legumes? (a) carbohydrate (b) protein (c) water
___ are the most recognized source of poultry meat and eggs (a) chickens (b) ducks (b) turkey
_____ are the reproductive kernel (seeds) of the plant or tree from which they come (a) meat (b) nuts (c) cereal
____ are used as dessert in salads and for decorating cakes and sweet dishes. They are also pickled. (a) walnuts (b) coconuts (c) chestnuts
____ is used in desiccated form for curry preparations in cakes and for decorating cakes, such as Madeleine. (a) walnuts (b) coconuts (c) chestnuts
_____are the leaves of plants while spices are derived from the roots, seeds, bud or bark of plants (a) herbs (b) cereals (c) legumes
______are those used directly as derived from the plants without subjecting them to industrial processing (a) natural herbs (b) artificial herbs (c) herbicides
___are produced industrially after some processing (a) natural herbs (b) artificial herbs (c) herbicides

Which of the following is NOT Natural herbs or spices? (a) Bitter leaf (b) Tea bush (c) Thyme
Which of the following is NOT example of Artificial Herbs or spices? (a) (a) Thyme (b) Curry (c) Locusts beans
____ are food additives added to food to improve flavour, aroma, colour, etc. (a) flavor (b) coloring (c) flavoring and coloring
Which of the following is NOT an example of natural flavor? (a) Ginger (b) Cinnamon (c) Vinegar
Which of the following is NOT an example of artificial flavor? (a) Curry (b) Thyme (c) Ginger
Which of these is an oil seed? A. Brown bean B. Kidney bear C. Groundnut D. Lentil
Herbs are usually obtained from ____. A. seeds of plant B. leaves of plant C. bark of plant D. root of plant
Which of these is a natural flavouring? A. Ginger B. Vanilla C. Turmeric D. Curry
Cereals are very rich ____. A. protein B. phosphorus C. water D. carbohydrate
Which of these vitamins is readily available in yellow maize? A. Vit. A B. Vit. B C. C D. Vit. D
A white creamy fluid extracted from the breast of a female mammals is called ____. A. water B. syrup C. milk D. juice
A type of milk that the fat content is 0.1% is ___. A. organic milk B. skimmed milk C. condensed milk D. powdered milk
Which of these is a major nutrient found in vegetables? A. Protein B. Ascorbic acid C. Calcium D. Vitamin B
Citrus fruits include all of these except ____ A. oranges B. grapes C. lime D. pineaaple
Milk is a major source of high quality protein; the major protein in milk is ___ A. casein B. albumen C. glucose D. amino acid
___ are plants or parts of plants cultivated for food. They are highly perishable, but very essential. (a) vegetables (b) cheese (c) yoghurt
____ is produced by bacterial fermentation of milk. (a) vegetables (b) cheese (c) yoghurt
___is made from milk coagulated by an enzyme such as rennet (an animal product). (a) vegetables (b) cheese (c) yoghurt
_______is heated to a temperature of 65ºC for 30 minutes and then cooled quickly. This is done to destroy the pathogenic microorganisms. (a) dehydration (b) evaporation (c) pasteurization
_____is removal of virtually all the water content from milk and then milled to powder. It is done at a very high temperature (a) dehydration (b) evaporation (c) pasteurization
_____is removing a large proportion of water from milk. (a) dehydration (b) evaporation (c) pasteurization
____is a perishable product and therefore must be stored with care. It will keep for four to five days in refrigerated conditions. (a) food (b) milk (c) beverages
___generally has a structure which is spherical; one end is pointed more than the other end (a) egg (b) meal (c) beans
Which of these is an oily fish? A. Herring B. Halibut C. Crab D. Skate
Crayfish is an example of ____ A. fin fish B. shell fish C. oily fish D. general fish
The following nutrients are present in eggs except ____ A. protein B. water C. carbohydrate D. fat
The inner yellowish part of an egg is called the ____ A. albumen B. airspace C. chalaza D. yoke
Which of these is an offal? A. Brain B. Sirloin C. leg beef D. Rump steak
Poultry meat refers to meat derived from _____ A. bush animals B. land animals C. domesticated birds D. flying birds
Which of these best describes game? A. Wild bush animal B. Domesticated birds C. Sea animals D. Poultry
The dark meat in poultry is obtained from the ____ A. head of the bird B. legs of the bird C. intestine of the bird D. breast of the bird
Meat from young cow is called ____ A. mutton B. pork C. veal D. lamb.
Which of these is a game? A. Cow B. Fish C. Turkey D. Tiger
Transference of energy from a heat source to a food is called ____. A. fuel B. cook C. cooking D. change.
One of the points to consider in choosing method is ____. A. area B. electricity C. skill of the cook D. home
One of the reasons for cooking food is____. A. to cook it B. to grow C. to store D. to make it soft.
Which of the following is an example of moist methods of cooking? A. Roasting B. Grilling C. Toasting D. Boiling
Transfer of heat energy through a solid stationary material is called ____. A. radiation B. conduction C. composition D. convection
Cooking with steam is called ___ A. boiling B. steaming C. frying D. stewing.
A ____ food is more digestible than food cooked using other methods A. steamed B. boiled C. fried D.
Cooking food with sufficient water is called ____. A. boiling B. cooking C. simmering D. all of the above.
Food fried with little oil is called ____. A. shallow frying B. deep frying C. dry frying D. frying
____ is the best frying method for doughnuts A. Sautéing B. Braising C. Deep frying D. Shallow frying.
Using frying method for flavouring food used for garnishing is called ____. A. sautéing B. braising C. dry frying D. shallow frying.

Catering Craft Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.B 2.B 3.A 4.C 5.A 6.B 7.A 8.B 9.C

10.A 11.B 12.A 13.B 14.A 15.A 16.B 17.C

18.C 19.C 20.C 21.C 22.C 23.D 24.A 25.D

26.A 27.C 28.B 29.D 30.D 31.A 32.A 33.C

34.B 35.C 36.A 37.B 38.B 39.A 40.A 41.B

42.C 43.D 44.C 45.C 46.A 47.B 48.C 49.D

50.C 51.C 52.B 53.A 54.B 55.B 56.A 57.C 58.A 59.C 60.A

THEORY

– answer any 6 questions only

1a. Define Poultry

1b. Mention six different cereals known to you.

2a. List and discuss the food value of cereals.

2b. Mention 3 nutritive value of poultry

3a. List the two groups of legumes with examples.

3b. Discuss the nutritive value of legumes.

4a. List four types of nuts.

4b. Mention the uses of any three.

5a. Differentiate between herbs and spices.

5b. List and explain the classification of herbs and spices.

6a. Write short notes on any five types of milk.

6b. List the classification of fruits.

7a. Mention the food values of milk.

7b. List and explain three types of milk.

8a. Draw and label an egg.

8b. List three nutrients that egg contains.

9a. State three uses of eggs in cookery.

9b. State two ways of checking for the freshness of fish.

10a. State three advantages of boiling method.

10b. State two disadvantages of poaching.

SS1 Chemistry Examination Questions For First Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

CHEMISTRY

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A

TIME: 1 HOUR 45 MINUTES

ANSWER All QUESTIONS CORRECTLY

The aspect of chemistry that deals with the study of carbon and its compound is called (a) physical chemistry (b) Organic chemistry (c) Inorganic chemistry (d) Analytical chemistry
Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of chemistry? (a) pollution (b) poisoning (c) emulsion (d) corrosion
A stage in scientific method of discoveries is (a) Evaporating (b) Hypothesis (c) Dehydrating (d) dissolving
A theory which has been extensively tested and proven correct without any exception becomes (a) scientific law (b) hypothesis (c) experiment (d) pattern
Career prospects in chemistry includes all the following EXCEPT (a) Biochemistry (b) Quality control (c) Accounting (d) Metallurgy
An apparatus in the laboratory in which the preparation of poisonous gases is done is called (a) distillation tank (b) Aspirator bottle (c) fume cupboard (d) bell jar
In the laboratory _______ is used for the collection of a gas over water (a) gas jar (b) Woulff’s bottle (c) reagent bottle (d)burette
Two liquids which are immiscible with each other can be separated using (a) bell jar (b) gas jar (c) wash bottle (d) separating funnel
An apparatus used to hold drying agents during the preparation of dry gases is (a) conical flask (b) gas jar (c) Woulff’s bottle (d) flat bottom flask
Coloured reagent bottles are used to store reagents which are capable of _____ easily by sunlight (a) evaporating (b) decomposing (c) dehydrating (d) dissolving
Which of the following changes is a chemical change? (a) melting of ice (b) liquefaction of air (c) slaking of lime (d) evaporation of a liquid
Which of the following substances will occupy a wider space? (a)carbon (iv) oxide (b) liquid milk (c) pieces of chalk (d) water
When a solid changes to gas directly, this process is called (a) freezing (b) sublimation (c) vaporization (d) evaporation
Which of the following changes produces a new substance ?(a) reaction of water with sodium chloride (b) addition of acid to base (c) turning of margarine to oil (d) evaporation of water
Which one of the following has a fixed shape and volume? (a) a cube of sugar (b) liquid wax (c) smoke (d) kerosene
The combining power of calcium is (a)+2 (b)-2 (c)-1 (d)+1
Which of the following is a metalloid? (a) sulphur (b) iron (c) silicon (d) carbon
The symbol Au represents (a) silver (b) lead (c) copper (d) gold
Which of the following elements is used as a standard in defining valency? (a) oxygen (b) copper (c) carbon (d) hydrogen
Which of the following metals is a liquid at room temperature? (a) iron (b) gold (c) tin (d) mercury
Which of the following is a mixture? (a) water(b) sugar(c) milk (d) starch
Which of the following is a compound? (a) water (b) soil (c) diamond (d) graphite
Which of these formulae represents ammonia? (a) NH₃ (b) NH₄⁺ (c) NH₂ (d) CH₄
The formula for sand is (a) C0₂ (b) SO₂(c) NO₂(d) SiO₂
Compounds are always (a) heterogeneous (b) homogenetic (c) homogenous or heterogeneous (d) chemogeneous
A mixture of oil and water can be separated by (a) sublimation (b) evaporation to dryness
(c) using a separating funnel (d) fractional distillation
Fractional distillation is used to separate (a) an insoluble substance from a soluble volatile substance (b) liquids with differing boiling points (c) gas, liquid or solid impurities from a mixture (d) liquid with close boiling points
Which of the following separating techniques can be used to separate a mixture of iodine and sodium chloride? (a) distillation (b) evaporation (c) sublimation (d) decantation
Which of the following is NOT a type of chromatography ?(a) thin layer (b) gas (c) paper (d) glass
Which of the following is a quick but inaccurate way of separating mixture? (a) decantation (b) evaporation (c) filtration (d) distillation
Which of the following is NOT a constituent of the atom (a) proton (b) electron (c) neutron(d) Isotope
Which of the following statement about an atom is NOT correct? (a) it is indivisible (b) it is destructible in some cases (c) it is the smallest part of a substance that takes part in a reaction (d) it is made up of protons, neutrons and electrons
Which of the following is a liquid at room temperature? (a) copper (b) gold (c) mercury (d) silver
How can you separate a mixture of iron filings and sulphur powder? (a) distillation (b) chromatography (c) magnetization (d) evaporation
What is the atomicity of neon? (a) monoatomic (b) diatomic (c) triatomic (d) polyatomic
The compound Na₂S is called ____ (a) Sodium sulphate (b) Sodium sulphur (c) Sodium sulphide (d) Sodium sulphite.
The formula of sulphur (iv) oxide is (a) SO₄ (b) SO₂ (c) S₂O₄ (d) S₄O₂
Ammonium chloride can be written as (a) NH₄Cl (b) NH₃Cl₂ (c) NH₄HCl (d) NH₄OH
The IUPAC name of NaHSO₄ is (a) Sodium bicarbonate (b) Sodium tetraoxosulphate (vi) acid (c) Sodium sulphate (c) Sodium hydrogen tetraoxosulphate (vi)
Which of the following compounds have cation with variable oxidation state. (a) FeO₃(b) ZnCO₃(c) CuO (d) KU
The atomic number of an element is precisely____(a) the number of protons in the atom (b) the number of electrons in the atom (c) the number of neutrons in the atom
An atom can be defined more accurately as (a) the smallest indivisible parts of an element that can take part in a chemical reaction (b) the smallest part of an element that can take part in a chemical reaction (c) a combination of protons, neutrons
The mass number is (a) proton number + neutron number (b) electron number + proton number (c) neutron number + electron number
Calculate the relative atomic mass 16.2 of an element having two isotopes 16P8 with relative abundance 90% and mP8 with relative abundance 10%. What is the value of m? (a)16 (b)17 (c)18
An element X has two isotopes ^18.8X and ^15.8X in the proportion of 1:9 respectively. Find the relative atomic mass of X (a)16.1 (b)13.6 (c)16.8
Which of the following orbitals is spherical in shape? (a) s (b) p (c) d (d) f
Which of the following shells have a maximum of eight electrons ? (a) k (b) l (c) m (d) n
1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3p¹ is the electronic configuration of ___ (a) potassium (b) calcium (c) sodium (d) aluminum.
“No two electrons have identical sets of four quantum numbers”. This statement is __ (a) Aufbau principle (b) Pauli exclusion (c) Hund’s rule (d) Rutherford’s model.
Which of the quantum number is represented by L? (a) principal quantum no (b) subsidiary quantum no (c) magnetic quantum (d) spin quantum.
_____ is applied in our everyday life as different activities take place in the environment. (a) biology (b) chemistry (c) physics
Careers open to those who have studied chemistry at any level are the following except____(a) science education (b) biochemistry (c) physical education
_____ is commonly used during titration experiments. It is usually graduated and used to estimate the volume of a solution (a) conical flask (b) crucible (c) bell jar
______ is made of thick glass, cylindrical, tall and usually with a knob at the top. It is used in combustion experiments (a) conical flask (b) crucible (c) bell jar
______ is usually made of porcelain with a lid to match. It can withstand high temperature hence, it is used for ignition of substances until they are decomposed (a) conical flask (b) crucible (c) bell jar
_____ is used in separating fine solid particles in a liquid (a) centrifuge (b) crucible (c) bell jar
____ is used in qualitative analyses to hold reactants’ (a) centrifuge (b) crucible (c) test-tube
Whenever a given substance is heated, its state does not change (a) true (b) false (c) maybe
____ change is a change which is not easily reversible and in which new substances are formed. (a) physical (b) matter (c) chemical

There are over one hundred known elements (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe

THEORY

ANSWER ANY 6 QUESTION YOU KNOW

1a. State five applications of chemistry in our daily life

1b. Mention five laboratory apparatus and their uses

1c. Explain chemistry

2a. Mention five (5) laboratory pieces of apparatus you know and their uses

2b. Define (a) Laboratory (b) Laboratory apparatus

2c. State the use of the following apparatuses

Separating funnel
Condenser

3a. What is a physical change?

3b. Give two examples of a physical change

3c. What is a chemical change?

4a. Give two examples of a chemical change.

4b. State three differences between physical and chemical changes.

4c. What are metalloids?

5a. State two differences between metals and non-metals.

5b. Define (i) valency (ii) Radical

5c. Write the valency of: a) Oxygen (b) Potassium c) Sulphur d) S0₄^2- e) NH₄⁺

6a. Define an element.

6b. Write the formulae of; (i) tetraoxosulphate(vi) acid (ii) Magnesium Chloride

6c. State three properties of a compound

7a. What is a mixture?

7b. State four differences between compound and mixture

7c. List five (5) compounds and their formulae

8a. Explain briefly the following methods of separation of mixtures: (a) Filtration (b) Decantation (c) Centrifugation

8b. Explain the following separation techniques

(a) Precipitation (b) Sublimation

8c. Mention two criteria for purity of a substance.

9a. Give any two postulates of the Dalton’s atomic theory.

9b. Differentiate an atom from a molecule.

9c. How will an atom become an ion?

10a. Name the following compounds (a) Fe₂O₃ (b) KMnO₄(c) KClO₃

10b. Calculate the oxidation number of (a) Sulphur in H₂SO₄ (b) Carbon in CuCO₃

10c. Define isotopy.

10d. Write the isotopes of chlorine.

11a. An element with relative atomic mass 16.2 contains two isotopes 16P8 with relative abundance 90% and mP8 with relative abundance 10%. What is the value of m?

SOLUTION

16.2 = 90 x 16 + 10 x m/100

16.2 = 9 x 16/10 + m/10

16.2 = 144 /10 + m/10

16.2 = 144 + m

_____________

16.2 x 10 = 144 + m

162 = 144 + m

162 – 144 = m

18 = m

The value of m is 18

11b.State the following principle

{a} Aufbau Principle {b} Hund’s rule.

SS1 Civic Education Examination Questions For First Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

CIVIC – EDUCATION

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A

TIME: 1 HOUR 45 MINUTES

ANSWER All QUESTIONS CORRECTLY

The process of making young people gain the ability and the agency to make decision and implement changes in their own lives is known as (a). Government empowerment (b). Old computer (c). Youth empowerment (d). Future empowerment
What is the full meaning of HIV? (a). Human Immuno Vibro (b). Human Immune Virus (c). Human Immuno Deficiency Virus (d). Human Immuno Virus
Which of these is an example of positive values (a)? Politeness (b). Cheating (c). Dishonesty (d). Greed
Why do we study Civic Education in Nigerian School? (a). To make the citizens participate in politics (b). To make the students enforce law in their family (c). To inculcate in students their duties and obligations to the society (d). To encourage social miscreant in the society
The following are needs for civic education in Nigeria EXCEPT……… (a). To assist the government to serve citizens well through provision of basic infrastructure (b). To educate citizens about what is happening in their country (c). To assist citizens to be active (d). To help citizens to see the need for national unity
……….. is an acceptable way of relating with one another in the society (a). Social values (b). Community values (c). Societal value (d). Society values
Democracy day in Nigeria is …….. (a). 30^th May (b). 29^th May (c). 25^th May (d). 27^th May
The right to vote and be voted for during election is called ……. (a). Franquise (b). Franchise (c). Franklin (d). Franclise
……… is a body of rules and regulations through which a society is governed to maintain peace and orderliness (a). Duties (b). Law (c). Rights (d). Obligations
…….. is the actual worth of a thing (a). Honesty (b). Trust (c). Value (d). Integrity
What is the full meaning of PLWHA? (a). People Living With HIV/AIDS (b). People Living With Head Ache (c). People Living With Home Alone (d). People Living With Allowance
The following are types of communication skills EXCEPT …….. (a). Listening Skills (b). Expressive skills (c). Intellectual skills (d) manipulative skills
Which of the following is a law used in the society (a) criminal law (b) street law (c) office law (d) school law
______ is the ability to work for and care for other people more than one self (a) duties (b) selflessness (c) Justice (d) Obligations
Attributes of honesty are the following except (a) Courage (b) Truthfulness (c) Dis honesty (d) Loyalty
HIV/.AIDS does not spread the following except one correct____ (a) hugging (b) Blood transfusion (c) mosquitoes bite (d) sneezing and coughing
Working together of people to achieve a common goal is called __________(a) constitution (b) community (c) connection (d) cooperation
Citizen means __________ (a) A person that does not enjoy any night at all (b) A person who is recognized by law (c) a person that enjoys free food and housing (d) A person that is not recognized by law as a member of a country .
The green colour in the national Flag stands for __________ (a) animals (b) Farmland and forest (c) wealth (d) strength
________ is a type of citizenship (a) Importation (b) naturalization (c) Exportation (d) Exploitation
Social values does not include the following except one correct__________ (a) drug abuse (b) friendship (c) Cultism (d) Thuggery
_________ is a disagreement or quarrel between two or more people over a certain issue (a) Unity (b) Conflict (c) Agreement (d) Democracy
________ is dealing with illicit drugs (a) drug trafficking (b) poverty ( c) drug purchase (d) drug abuse
One of the following is a social right (a) right to acquire and own properties (b) Right to fair hearing (c) right to freedom of religion (d) right to freedom of movement
______________ is the habit or practice of having one’s business without working under anybody (a) self centered (b) self-employed (c) development (d) partnership
Causes of road accidents are as follows except ________ (a) over speeding (b) Drunk driving (c) bad roads (d) concentration
Nigeria got its independence in ________ (a) 1^st October, 1999 (b) 1^st October 1960 (c) 1 October 1963 (d) 1^st September 1960
One of the causes of illiteracy is ________ (a) poverty (b) knowledge (c) Education (d) none of the above
The normal principles and standard which guide over interaction with people in the society is known as _____ (a) moral (b) value (c) ethics (d) Civil education
The following are effects of exam malpractices on students EXCEPT ________ (a) it brings continuous condemnation of one’s conscience (b ) it may leads to frustration (c) it brings out the intelligence in student (d) it brings about torment
Which of the following is NOT an importance of values (a)? It enables us to set goals for ourselves (b). It helps in decision making (c). It helps in settlement of conflicts
One of the factor that promotes good value system is …………. (a). Inconsistency (b). Greed (c). In tolerance (d). Tolerance
Which of these organ / body is responsible for the conduct of elections (a). NYSC (b). NNPC (c). INEC (d). Military
……….. is a type of courage (a). Moral courage (b). Stubborn Courage (c). Dancing Courage (d). Resilient Courage
To be eligible to vote, you have to be ………… (a). A parent (b). Under 18years (c). 18 years and above (d). A worker
The agency that is responsible for the enforcement of drug abuse is ………….. (a). EFCC (b). NICC (c). ILO (d). NDLEA
Population means ………. (a). The act of taxing people (b). The payment of dues (c). The number of people in a place (d). The act of counting people
Example of negative behaviour is ………. (a). Cultism (b). Shun envy (c). Leadership (d). Followership
Courage is the ability to ………. (a). Do something that one knows is right or good (b). Exercise patience (c). Defend oneself (d). Settle conflict and disputes
The following are causes of cultism EXCEPT ……… (a). Parental background (b). Good leadership (c). Peer pressure (d). Greediness
Which of the following is the effect of AIDS (a). The victim suffer psychologically (b). Increased level of poverty (c). It leads to increased dependency ration (d). Having night blindness
The following are symptoms of HIV / AIDS EXCEPT ……… (a). Fever (b). Anaemia (c). Strong Muscles and Joints (d). Chronic Cough
One can become infected with HIV by the following except ……….. (a). During sexual acts (b). From mother to child (c). Sharing contaminated sharp objects (d). Sitting together
Victims of HIV/AIDS are stigmatized in the following ways EXCEPT ………. (a). Rejection by family and friends (b). Discrimination and estrucisation (c). Employment in offices (d). Avoidance and rejection
Which of the following is NOT a type of value (a). Courage (b). Honesty (c). Envy (d).Contentment
Which of this is an attribute of selflessness (a) time (b) loyalty (c) Godliness (d) courage
______ is the state of being truthful and straight forward in whatever we are doing (a) Godliness (b) Honesty (c) love (d) contentment
Which of these is NOT a type of justice (a) procedural justice (b) distributive justice (c) Responsive justice (d) Retributive justice
The following are effects of lack of contentment (a) corruption (b) cheating (c) Greed (d) Modesty
Which of these is NOT a type of courage (a) spiritual courage (b) moral courage (c) Future courage (d) physical courage
__________ is the activity that is performed by someone or group of people for the benefit of a community (a) social development (b) community service (c) community development (d) Punishment
Which of these is NOT an importance of community service (a) it promote dispute (b) it promote national integration (c) it promote sense of belonging (d) it create a serer of unity
Which of these is NOT an example of community service project (a) building of community hall (b) clearing pathways (c) construction of personal houses (d) construction of sign posts indicating street names
What is the full meaning of AIDS (a) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (b) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (c) Acquired Immuned Syndrome (d) Acquired Immune Deficiency sign.
Which of the following statement is TRUE (a) AIDS is a disease of human system caused by HIV (b) HIV is a disease of human system caused by AIDS (c) one can have AIDS immediately after injection (d) Aching muscles and joints are cure for HIV
Judging an individual without listening to his side of the story does bring unfairness (a) True (b) False
Which of these is an example of youth empowerment organization (a) YES (b) O – YES (c) YOU WIN (d) All of the above
What is the full meaning of NLNG (a) national labour of Nigeria group (b) Nigeria Liquefied Natural Gas (c) Nigeria labour Group (d) Nigeria Limited of Neighbourhood group
____________ is the ability of an individual to control his or her own behaviour (a) cheating (b) Discipline (c) contentment (d) Courage
______maintain law and order in the society (a) government (b) citizenship (c) schools (d) security

Civic Education Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.C 3.A 4.C 5.A 6.C 7.B 8.B 9.B

10.C 11.A 12.C 13.A 14.B 15.C 16.B 17.D

18.B 19.B 20.B 21.B 22.B 23.A 24.D 25.B

26.D 27.B 28.A 29.A 30.C 31.C 32.D 33.C

34.A 35.C 36.D 37.C 38.A 39.A 40.B 41.B

42.C 43.D 44.C 45.C 46.B 47.B 48.C 49.A

50.C 51.B 52.A 53.C 54.B 55.A 56.A 57.D 58.B 59.B 60.B

THEORY

ANSWER 3 QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION. QUESTION (ONE) 1 IS COMPULSORY

1a. What is Civic Education

1b. Mention 5 importance of civic education (10 marks)

2a. What is Value?

b. Mention 5 importance of value (5 marks)

3a. Explain the ways by which HIV/AIDS can be transmitted

b, How can HIV/AIDS be prevented. Mention (five) 5 ways

4a. Explain the term ‘youth Empowerment’

b. List and explain (two) 2 types of communication skills (5 marks)

5a. Define Government, list organs of government

b. Enumerate five (5) importance of community service (5 marks)

6a. Who is Justice?

b. List types of justice and explain two? (5 marks)

Senior High School Exam Ist term. Year 10/SS1 Examination Questions for first term all subjects objectives and theory answers-Edudelight Exam

SS1 Commerce Examination Questions For First Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

COMMERCE

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A

Which of the following aids to trade facilitates production ahead of demand? (a) insurance (b) transportation (c) advertising (d) warehousing
Which of the following is the function of commerce? (a) the conversion of raw materials into semi-finished products (b) the conversion of semi – finished products into end products (c) provision of services to customers (d) the exchange and distribution of goods and services
The last link in the production process is the _______ (a) transporter (b) wholesaler (c) consumer (d) retailer
The selling of goods in small units is normally performed by ________(a) chambers of commerce (b) wholesalers (c) distributors (d) retailers
An activity involving buying, selling and distribution of goods and services is known as ________ (a) trade (b) marketing mix (c) exchange (d) commerce
Trade as a division of commerce is usually classified into (a) retail and wholesale (b) import and export (c) home and foreign (d) visible and invisible
The exchange of goods for goods in home trade is known _____ (a) entreport trade (b) trade by barter (c) commodity trade (d) distributive trade
Which of the following is not a function of a retailer? (a) providing after sales service (b) stocking variety of goods (c) selling in small units to the consumers (d) financing manufacturers
_______ is the buying and selling of goods and services beyond the geographical boundaries of a country and the other (a) foreign trade (b) home trade (c) internal trade (d) insurance
The process of importing goods and services for re- exporting to other countries is known as _____ (a) export (b) import (c) entreport (d) foreign trade
According to the history of commerce in Nigeria, people engaged in ______ production (a) existence (b) subsistence (c) pastoral (d) commercial
The following are the factors affecting the growth of commerce in Nigeria except ______ (a) insufficient capital (b) political instability (c) low saving (s) role of advertising
Productive activities which people engage in to create and procure goods and services in order to make a living is known as ______ (a) production (b) occupation (c) commerce (d) industry
The buying and selling of goods and services within a country is called ______ (a) counter trade (b) entreport trade (c) foreign trade (d) home trade
Farmers and all other workers concerned with getting raw materials from the earth are engaged in ____ (a) commercial occupation (b) manufacturing occupation (c) constructive occupation (d) extractive occupation
Which of the following is not a function of commerce? (a) facilitates mass production of goods (b) assists in raising capital (c) creates goods and services (d) offers employment
The process of making goods attractive and easy to handle is known as _____ (a) branding (b) merchandising (b) packaging (d) labeling
Which of the following is classified as an extractive industry? (a) digging for minerals (b) digging for road building (c) canning of tomato puree (d) assembling of cars
Employees in the civil or public service are referred to as ______ (a) general servant (b) private servants (c) civil servant (d) management servant
Those who are engaged in exploiting natural resources are in ______ (a) commercial occupation (b) constructive occupation (c) manufacturing occupation (d) extractive occupation
The development of trade in West Africa was aided by the ______ (a) emergence of traditional rulers (b) arrival of the Portuguese (c) introduction of tax payment (d) introduction of money
Those who are engaged in the distribution of goods belong to ______ (a) commercial occupation (b) extractive industry (c) manufacturing industry (d) construction industry
Which of the following protects consumers against poor quality goods? (a) chambers of commerce (b) standard organization (c) trade association (d) manufacturers association
Direct sales to consumers by manufacturers is a means of eliminating _____ (a) wholesalers only (b) retailers only (c) middlemen (d) agents
Consumers protection places an obligation on producers to ensure that their products _____ (a) are wholesome and safe (b) are cheap (c) do not evade customs examination (d) are branded
The target for all marketing activities is the _______ (a) consumer (b) middlemen (c) producer (d) distributor
Foreign trade is concerned with ______ (a) exchange of goods and services among companies (b) buying and selling of imported goods (c) exchange of goods and services among citizens (d) buying and selling of goods and services among countries
Carpentry is an activity classified under ______ (a) extractive occupation (b) tertiary occupation (c) commercial occupation (d) constructive occupation
The two major divisions of trade are _____ and _____ (a) commerce and industry (b) home and foreign (c) import and export (d) sole trade and partnership
Occupation can be classified into these main groups (a) industry, commerce and services (b) extraction, manufacturing and construction (c) farming, fishing and farming (d) quarrying, hunting and forestry
All these are direct services except _______ (a) housemaids (b) entertainers (c) barbers (d) law makers
There are ______ factors of production (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 4
The reward for land is ________ (a) profit (b) rent (c) wages (d) interest
_______ may be defined as man – made assets used in production (a) capital (b) interest (c) entrepreneurs (d) resources
_______ is defined as the concentration of the productive efforts of an individuals, a firm or a country in a given aspect of economic activity in which it has the greatest advantage over others (a) division of labour (b) specialization (c) employment (d) technology
The movement of people and goods from one place to another is called ______ (a) advertising (b) banking (c) communication (d) transportation
The reward for capital is _______ (a) interest (b) profit (c) rents (d) salaries
Which of the following is NOT one of the aids to trade? (a) advertising (b) banking (c) insurance (d) mining (e) warehousing
The amount used in starting up a business is called _______ (a) capital (b) cash at bank (c) cash in hand (d) opening stock
Those who buy in large quantities from producers are called _____ (a) consumers (b) hawkers (c) manufacturers (d) wholesalers
_______ are goods and services that can satisfy the consumers immediate needs (a) producer goods (b) capital goods (c) consumer goods (d) durable goods
The most suitable medium for demonstrating the use of a product is _____ (a) handbills (b) newspaper (c) poster (d) television
Which of the following is a disadvantage of foreign trade? (a) it encourages dumping (b) it widens the world market (c) it encourages specialization (d) it provides variety of goods
Buying and selling of goods of goods between Nigeria and China is known as _______ trade (a) export (b) foreign (c) home (d) retail
The aids to trade which ensures that people have access to information pertaining to goods is ____ (a) insurance (b) advertising (c) warehouse (d) banking
Which of the following is not a right of the consumers? (a) safety (b) choice (c) discount (d) value
Industrial occupation does not involve the _____ (a) growing and extraction of raw materials (c) use of machinery (c) construction and machinery of goods (d) movement of people and goods
The reward for entrepreneurship as a factor of production is _____ (a) interest (b) commission (c) profit (d) salary
Communication is important in business because it _____ (a) creates awareness in the minds of the consumers (b) ensures that finished products are distributed (c) facilities contact between buyers and sellers
Which of these is not a subject of commercial students? (a) economics (b)accounting (c) insurance (d) physics
The main divisions of commerce are (a) Home trade and foreign trade (b) Transportation and warehousing (c) Trade and aids to trade (d) Wholesale and Retail trade
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of commerce? It (a) Facilitates the movement of goods and services (b) Provides employment to people (c) Increases the cost of living (d) Makes funds available for business activities
All are aids to trade except (a) Advertising (b) Transportation (c) Retailing (d) Banking
Which of the following can be defined as trade and aid to trade? (a) Advertising (b) Commerce (c) Warehousing (d) Retailing
Which of the following is NOT a basic want of man? (a) Transport (b) Food (c) Water (d) Clothing
Which of the following is concerned with changing raw materials to finished goods? (a) Extractive occupation (b) Manufacturing occupation (c) Constructive occupation (d) Commercial occupation
Which of the following is NOT a function of commerce? (a) advertising goods (b) creation of goods (c) increasing profit made (d) distribution of goods.
An industry whose major actors consist of those engaged in sourcing raw materials from the earth surface is known as __________ industry (a) commercial (b) construction (c) extractive (d) mining.
The services offered by the following people could be grouped under direct services except (a) Doctors (b) entertainers (c) policemen (d) teachers.
The services of a teacher is in the classification of (a) commerce (b) direct services (c) extractive occupation (d) indirect services.

Commerce Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.D 3.C 4.D 5.D 6.C 7.B 8.D 9.A

10.C 11.B 12.D 13.B 14.D 15.D 16.B 17.B

18.A 19.C 20.D 21.D 22.A 23.A 24.C 25.A

26.A 27.D 28.D 29.B 30.A 31.D 32.D 33.B

34.A 35.B 36.D 37.A 38.D 39.A 40.D 41.C

42.D 43.A 44.B 45.B 46.D 47.D 48.C 49.C

50.D 51.C 52.C 53.C 54.B 55.A 56.B 57.C 58.C 59.C 60.D

SECTION B THEORY PARTS

What is Commerce? 1b. With a the aid of a diagram explain the scope of commerce
What is Tourism? 2b. List three (3) advantages and disadvantages of tourism
Briefly described the history of commerce in Nigeria

b. List and explain the factors that adversely affect the growth of commerce

Define occupation 3b. show with the aid of a diagram the classification of occupation

List any four factors that affect employment. 2.Give four examples of commercial occupations

SS1 CRS Examination Questions For First Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A

1. Who is the Lamb of God that takes away the sin? (a) God (b) John (c) Jesus (d) Holy spirit

2. The one I told you will come after me, a man preferred before me. Who made the statement? (a) Peter (b) Jesus (c) John the Baptist (d0 God

3. Who bore witness that he saw spirit descending from heaven? (a) Peter (b) Jesus (c) John the Baptist

4. If you do not enter the sheep fold by the door but climbs up some other way, you are ____(a) thief and robber (b) Good brethren (c) A and B (d) None of the above

5. Shepherd of the sheep enters by the (a) door (b) window (c) other way (d) A & B

6. Who is the door? (a) God (b) Jesus (c) John (d) All of the above

7. The sheep does not follow _____ (a) Jesus (b) Stranger (c) Satan (d) John

8. Men preferred darkness to light because of ____ (a) good deeds (b) deaf ear (c) evil deeds

9. Jesus said they should believe Him so that they can be _ (a) good (b) enemies (c) sons (d) A n C

10. Rabbi means _______ (a) Pastor (b) teacher (c) evangelist (d) brethren

11. God’s will is that everyone who sees the son and believe Him may have (a) joy (b)enjoy and live in temple (c) everlasting life and Jesus will raise him up at the last day (d) beat satan to scorn

12. God love for man is ____ (a) conditional (b) unconditional (c) probability (d) deadly

13. Jesus asked for water to drink from (a) john (b) woman of samari (c) woman of Samaria

14. What is the highest gift one should have? (a) peace (b) joy (c) love (d) prophecy

15. What justifies a man is (a) love (b)faith (c) loyal (d) fear and work

16. Laws are made because of (a) iniquity (b) faith (c) righteousness (d) life

17. Who is the mediator? (a) Mary (b) John (c) Jesus (d) God

18. Those living the old life are children of (a) God (b) Satan (c) Both A & B (d) John

19. People practicing the new life are children of _______ (a) God (b) Satan (c) Peter

20. Characters of old life (a) fighting and outbursts of wrath (b) long suffering and sell control

21. New life characters are (a) long suffering & gentleness (b) revelries and covetousness (c) dissensions and sorcery (d) none of the above

22. Whoever one obeys, one is to (a) love (b) relation (c) slave (d) all of the above

23. Fruit of the spirit is (a) self-control (b) heresies (c) selfish ambitions (d) A & C

24. Your right as a citizen of Nigeria is (a) disobey authorities (b) escape from being punished when you offend (c) obey people in authority and fear (d) none of the above

25. ______ intercedes for us. (a) pastor (b) parents (c) God (d) Jesus

26. The man blind from birth, was due to his (a) sins (b) his parent’s sin (c) God work to be made manifest (d) to show the blind man’s power

27. The light brought by Jesus to the world is to the ____ (a) kingship (b) gospel people must embraced to be saved and inherit eternal life (c) sun (d) D & C

28. All have sinned and fall short of glory of God, they are justified by grace as gift through redemption in Christ Jesus, who said that? (a) John (b) Peter (c) Paul (d) All of them

29. By that statement, it means man cannot attain righteousness of God by his own effort or keeping the law, but by ____(a) faith (b) grace (c) A and B (d) dieing again

30. We receive ____ by living life worthy of gospel of Jesus Christ and by being at peace with God mankind (a) grace of God (b) death of God (c) God’s disciples (d) All of the above

31. In the creation story; the job of giving names to all living creatures was giving by _______ (a) God (b) Adam and Eve (c) Eve (d) Man

32. Reuben advised his brothers not to kill Joseph but to cast him into a pit because he ______ (a) Did not want them shed the blood of the innocent (b) Wanted to rescue him afterwards and bring him safely to their father (c) Wanted to bury him alive in the pit (d) Wanted them to sell Joseph to the Ishmaelite

33. Joseph was sold to the Ismaelites for _______ shekels of silver (a) Forty (b) Thirty – five (c) Thirty (d) Twenty

34. When the children of Israel came to the wilderness of sin, they murmured against Moses and Aaron because ________ (a)Egyptians were in hot pursuit (b) They were hungry (c) There was neither dew or rain for seven years (d) They were thirsty

35. At the time Deborah became a judge in Israel, she was a (a) Seer (b) Prophetess (c) Priestess (d) Medium

36. Which of the following did God do on the seventh day after he had completed the work of creation? He (a) Blessed and hallowed the seventh day (b) Worshipped on the seventh day (c)Took a record of all that he had created (d) Blessed all that he had created

37. According to the creation story, man became a living being because God ______ (a) Formed him out of the dust (b) Gave him tree of knowledge (c) Gave him a woman to live with him (d) Gave him the breadth of life

38. Who mad you a price and a judge over us? This statement by the two Hebrews to Moses signifies the _______ (a) Recognition of Moses divine authority by the Hebrews (b) Recognition of pharaoh’s authority by the Hebrews (c) Rejection of Moses leadership by his people (d) Rejection of Moses as an Egyptians prince

39. Which of the following does not portray the quality of leadership in the life of Deborah? (a)Ability to inspire others (b) Her marriage to Lapidoth (c) Her sound judgment of cases (d) Her Faith in God

40. God’s creative ability was manifested by his ______ (a) Approving that a thing be done (b) Commanding word prefaced by “there be” (c) Ordering the Holy Spirit to act (d)Choosing the better of two alternative models

41. After Joseph had revealed himself to his brothers, he ______ (a)Gave his brothers food (b) Fell upon Benjamin’s neck and smiled (c) Kissed Benjamin and departed (d) Kissed all his brothers and wept

42. Which of the following instructions did God gave to man after he had created him? (a) Go ye into the world and exercise full authority over it (b) Be fruitful and multiply, and fill the earth and subdue it (c) Be you kind to all the creatures of the earth (d) I have given you power over all the world, make full use of it

43. Which of the following leadership qualities was manifested by Joseph when he told his brothers not to be angry with themselves for selling him? (a) Wisdom (b) Good judgment (c) Maturity (d) Forgiveness

44. Moses ran away from Egypt because he _______ (a) Did not like to be brought up in Egyptian circles (b) Could no longer endure the famine in the land (c) Feared that the news of his act of murder would reach the king (d) Heard a divine call

45. Aaron accompanied Moses to Pharaoh because _______ (a)Aaron was a Levite (b) Aaron was bolder than Moses (c)Moses was deficient in speech (d) Aaron was appointed by the people

46. The Israelites under Barak defeated the Canaanite troops led by ______ (a) Jael (b) Heber (c) Sisera (d) Abinoam

47. The second account of creation was centered on the creation (a) Birds (b) The heavens (c) Man (d) Plants

48. When Joseph was sent to see the welfare of his brothers, he met them pasturing at _______ (a)The wilderness of sin (b) Gilead (c) Shechem (d) Dothan

49. Who among the following did God direct Moses to appoint as his successor? (a) Caleb (b) Eleazar (c) Joshua (d) Gideon

50. Moses experienced the burning bush that was not consumed at _______ (a) Horeb (b) Bethel (c) Nebo (d) Midiam

SECTION B

THEORY

1. What was Jesus teaching about himself as the living bread? In what two (2) ways is his teaching significant?

2. How does John portray Jesus as the true vine?

b. What two (2) lessons do you derive from the relationship between Christ and the believers?

3. What is Jesus message of love and how can a Christians demonstrate his love towards one another?

b. In what way did Jesus show his love for mankind?

4. Outline the five (5) features of the new life in Christ as stated by Paul in Colosians

b. Identify five (5) practices which can have negative effects in the Christian community

CRS Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.C 3.C 4.A 5.A 6.B 7.C 8.C 9.C

10.B 11.C 12.B 13.C 14.C 15.B 16.C 17.C

18.A 19.A 20.A 21.A 22.A 23.A 24.C 25.B

26.C 27.B 28.C 29.B 30.A 31. 32. 33.

34. 35. 36. 37. 38.- 39. 40. 41.

42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49.

50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57.

58. 59. 60.

SS1 Data Processing Examination Question For First Term

S.S.S 1 DATA PROCESSING

SECTION A: OBJECTIVES

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS TIME: 1 HR 45 MIN

The following are disadvantages of ICT except A. fraud B. virus C. faster communication D. none
ICT has turned the whole world into a ……A. global village B. galaxy C. universe D. none
The production of goods with or without human intervention using computer is known as …….A. automation B. AI C. expert system D. vacuum tube
ATM means ……. A. Automatic Teller Machine B. Automated Teller Machine C. Auto Teller Machine D. None
……..are raw facts which have not undergone processing. A. Information B. Data C. Record D. None
One of the characteristics of good information has to do with the correctness of information. A. reliability B. availability C. accuracy D. none
……..refers to the information that has been processed. A. Data B. Information C. Database D. None
There are ……… types of data. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 8
The process of surfing the NET to get information for further research is ……. A. primary source B. on-line C. secondary source D. None
……..is an electronic machine which accepts data as input, processes data and gives out information. A. Television B. Computer C. Photocopier D. None
A computer accepts data as……..A. input B. output C. processing D. store
The information which the computer gives is called …….. A. input B. output C. processing D. None
The language the computer understands is called…….. A. English B. programs C. French D. all languages
The following are examples of early counting methods except ……A. calculator B. pebbles C. grains D. none
In using fingers and toes, you can only count up to …….A. 20 B. 40 C. 50 D. 100
The following can be used for counting in the ancient times except…..A. fingers B. computer C. stones D. none
The stages of development of the computer machine are known as……..A. computer age B. computer history C. computer generation D. all
The most popularly used categories of computers is …… A. microcomputer B. minicomputer C. super computer
Another name for microcomputer is…… A. home computer B.personal computer C. analogue computer.
Mini computers were developed in the …….A. 1970s B. 1980s C. 1990s.
Mainframe computers can be used in the …..A. bank B. church C. market D. none
How many classifications of computers do we have? A. 2 B. 4 C. 7 D. 3
The generation of computer that uses AI is A. third B. second C. fifth D. first
……..is the smallest and the most popular class of computers. A. Micro B. Mini C. Super D. Mainframe.
What type of computer combines both features of digital and Analogue computers? A. micro B. hybrid C. digital D. super
Computers designed solely to solve a restricted class of problem is called A. general purpose B. special purpose C. digital D. analogue
AI means………….A. artefact intelligence B. artificial intellect C. artificial intelligence D. attitude intelligence.
Which of the generation of computer used vacuum tube? A. First B. Second C. Fifth D. Fourth
Which of the generation of computers used VLSIC? A. First B. Second C. Fifth D. Fourth
Fourth generation computers made use of …………A. VLSI B. Transistors C. AI
Fifth generation made use of ……………… A. AI B. Vacuum tubes. C. SSI
……..is an example of computers in the fifth generation A. Robort B. UNIVAC C. AI
How many generations of computers do we have? A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 9
The octal number system has a radix of ……. A. 7 B. 10 C. 16 D. 8
The Decimal Number is in Base ……A. 2 B. 8 C. 10 D. 16
……….is a basic fact that needs to undergo processing. A. information B. data C. output D. input
The methodology of converting data into information is A. data and information B. data processing C. decision making D. none of the above
The major reason for data processing is A. decision making B. conflict promotion C. information generation D. data manipulation
In data processing, input activity involves A. collection B. verification C. retrieving D. all of the above.
One of these is not data property A. presentation B. collection C. misuse D. accuracy

SECTION B: THEORY

ANSWER 4 QUESTIONS

Differentiate between data and information

1b. Define data processing

1c. Describe the 8 properties of data processing.

2a. List one features each of the generation computer. (5 marks)

2b. What are the technologies behind each of the generations of computer? (5 marks)

3a. List the classification of computers according to size

3b. What is the difference between general purpose computers and special purpose computers?

3c. Explain the following: digital, analogue and hybrid computers.

4a. Define the term ICT.

4b. Mention some ICT gadgets.

4c. State three uses of ICT.

4d. Explain at least four characteristics of good information.

5a. Define

data.
Information

5b. Mention any four sources of data.

5c. Mention any four sources of information.

6a. Define hardware and software?

6b. Mention 3 examples of hardware and 3 examples of software

6c. What is the difference between system and application software?

Data Processing Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.B 2.A 3.B 4.B 5.B 6.C 7.B 8.A 9.B

10.B 11.A 12.B 13.B 14.A 15.A 16.B 17.A

18.A 19.B 20.A 21.A 22.B 23.C 24.A 25.B

26.B 27.C 28.A 29.D 30.C 31.A 32.A 33.B

34.D 35.C 36.B 37.B 38.D 39.A/B 40.C

SS1 Data Processing Examination Question For First Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1 DATA PROCESSING

SECTION A

Instruction: Choose the correct option from the ones lettered A to D

……….is a basic fact that needs to undergo processing. A. information B. data C. output D. input
The methodology of converting data into information is_____ A. data and information B. data processing C. decision making D. none of the above
The major reason for data processing is A. decision making B. conflict promotion C. information generation D. data manipulation
In data processing, input activity involves A. collection B. verification C. retrieving D. all of the above.
One of these is NOT data property A. presentation B. collection C. misuse D. accuracy
Napier’s Bones had ……..A. 9 rods B. 11 rods C. 10 rods D. 12 rods
Jacquard’s loom was used in the ……A. mechanical industry B. weaving industry C. food industry D. all of the above
……. was the first calculating device. A. Napier’s Bones B. Punched card C. Abacus D. Slide rule
The octal number system has a radix of ……. A. 7 B. 10 C. 16 D. 8
The Decimal Number is in Base ……A. 2 B. 8 C. 10 D. 16
The following are disadvantages of ICT except___A. fraud B. virus C. faster communication D. none
ICT has turned the whole world into a ……A. global village B. galaxy C. universe D. none
The production of goods with or without human intervention using computer is known as …….A. automation B. AI C. expert system D. vacuum tube
ATM means … A. Automatic Teller Machine B. Automated Teller Machine C. Auto Teller Machine D. None
……..are raw facts which have not undergone processing. A. Information B. Data C. Record D. None
One of the characteristics of good information has to do with the correctness of information. A. reliability B. availability C. accuracy D. none
……..refers to the information that has been processed. A. Data B. Information C. Database D. None
There are ……… types of data. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 8
The process of surfing the NET to get information for further research is ……. A. primary source B. on-line C. secondary source D. None
……..is an electronic machine which accepts data as input, processes data and gives out information. A. Television B. Computer C. Photocopier D. None
A computer accepts data as……..A. input B. output C. processing D. store
The information which the computer gives is called …….. A. input B. output C. processing D. None
The language the computer understands is called…….. A. English B. programs C. French D. all languages
The following are examples of early counting methods except ……A. calculator B. pebbles C. grains D. none
In using fingers and toes, you can only count up to …….A. 20 B. 40 C. 50 D. 100
The following can be used for counting in the ancient times except .A. fingers B. computer C. stones D. None
The stages of development of the computer machine are known as……..A. computer age B. computer history C. computer generation D. all
The most popularly used categories of computers is ……A. microcomputer B. minicomputer C. super computer
Another name for microcomputer is……A. home computer B. personal computer C. analogue computer.
Mini computers were developed in the …….A. 1970s B. 1980s C. 1990s.
Mainframe computers can be used in the …..A. bank B. church C. market D. none
How many classifications of computers do we have? A. 2 B. 4 C. 7 D. 3
The generation of computer that uses AI is____ A. third B. second C. fifth D. first
……..is the smallest and the most popular class of computers. A. Micro B. Mini C. Super D. Mainframe.
What type of computer combines both features of digital and Analogue computers? A. micro B. hybrid C. digital D. super
Computers designed solely to solve a restricted class of problem is called__ A. general purpose B. special purpose C. digital D. analogue
AI means………….A. artefact intelligence B. artificial intellect C. artificial intelligence D. attitude intelligence.
Which of the generation of computer used vacuum tube? A. First B. Second C. Fifth D. Fourth
Which of the generation of computers used VLSIC? A. First B. Second C. Fifth D. Fourth
Fourth generation computers made use of …………A. VLSI B. Transistors C. AI
Fifth generation made use of ……………… A. AI B. Vacuum tubes. C. SSI
……..is an example of computers in the fifth generation A. Robort B. UNIVAC C. AI
How many generations of computers do we have? A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 9
The octal number system has a radix of … A.7 B.10 C.16 D.8
The Decimal Number is in Base__A.2 B.8 C.10 D. 16
……….is a basic fact that needs to undergo processing. A. information B. data C. output D. input
The methodology of converting data into information is___A. data and information B. data processing C. decision making D. none of the above
The major reason for data processing is A. decision making B. conflict promotion C. information generation D. data manipulation
In data processing, input activity involves A. collection B. verification C. retrieving D. all of the above.
One of these is not data property A. presentation B. collection C. misuse D. accuracy

Data Processing Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.B 2.B 3.C 4.A 5.C 6.B 7.B 8.C 9.D

10.C 11.C 12.A 13.B 14.B 15.B 16.C 17.B

18.C 19.B 20.B 21.A 22.B 23.B 24.A 25.A

26.B 27.A 28.B 29.B 30.A 31.A 32.D 33.C

34.B 35.B 36.B 37.C 38.A 39.D 40.A 41.A

42.A 43.B 44.D 45.C 46.D 47.B 48.C 49.D

50.C

THEORY

ANSWER 4 QUESTIONS

Differentiate between data and information

1b. Define data processing

1c. Describe the 8 properties of data processing.

2a. List one features each of the generation computer.

2b. What technologies is behind each generations of computer?

3a. List the classification of computers according to size

3b.What is the difference between general purpose computers and special purpose computers?

3c.Explain the following: digital, analogue and hybrid computers.

4a. Define the term ICT. 4b. Mention some ICT gadgets.

4c. State three uses of ICT.

4d. Explain at least four characteristics of good information.

5a. Define data. Information

5b. Mention any four sources of data.

5c. Mention any four sources of information.

6a. Define hardware and software?

6b. Mention 3 examples of hardware and 3 examples of software . 6c. What is the difference between system and application software?

What is data processing?\

Describe and explain a typical data processing cycle.

SS1 Economics Examination Question For First Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1 ECONOMICS

SECTION A

Scarcity in Economics means that resources are . (a). Not enough share among the producers of goods and services (b). Needed to satisfy human wants are limited (c). Never enough to share among consumers of goods and services (d). Required to meet our essential wants are unlimited
………….. is the branch of economics which deals with smaller units of the economy (a). Macro-Economics (b). Opportunity cost (c). Production (d). Micro-Economics
The full meaning of GDP is ………… (a). Gross Domestic Purchase (b). Good Domestic Product (c). Gross Domestic Product (d). Great Development
Human beings do not provide the necessary labour which combines with other factors to provide goods and services (a) True (b) False
One of the following is an advantage of mean (a). It can lead to distorted result (b). Its principles are difficult (c). It gives an exact value (d). Computation is very hard
……….. assists the government to determine the expected income and expenditure of a country (a). Preparation of budget (b). Participation in government (c). Production (d). Development of programmes
. is one of the reason we study economics (a). Consumer (b). Companies (c). Individual (d). Allocation of resources
Law of ………… is also called the law of variable proportions (a). Production (b). Labour (c). Diminishing returns (d). None of the above
……… chart is used when the date given are made up of only one item or component (a). bar (b). pie (c).simple (d). multiple
……. is not an importance of scale of preference (a). Optimum allocation of resources (b). Balance of payment (c). Rational choice (d). Ranking of needs
Economics belongs to a group of subject called (a). Social Economics (b). Social Studies (c). Social Biology (d). Social Science
The most generally accepted definition of Economics is put forward by …….. (a). Alfred Marshall (b). Adams Smith (c). Lord Robbins (d). John Stuart Mill
This category of labour makes use of their mental effort in productive activities (a). Unskilled labour (b). Labour force (c). Skilled labour (d). All of the above
One of the following is not a basic concept of economics (a). Scarcity (b). Want (c). Budget (d). Choice
………. is the inability of human beings to provide themselves with all the things they desire or want (a). Wants (b). Choice (c). Scarcity (d). Scale of proportion
We study economics for the following reasons except (a). Production (b). Scales (c). Preparation of budget (d). Development of programmes
Economics is regarded as a science because it studies ………….. (a). Consumer’s behaviour (b). Commodity price (c). Human Relation (d). Human behaviours
If the price of a commodity rises people will buy …………………. (a). More (b). Little (c). Less (d). Many
Human wants are usually described as ……………. (a). Satiable (b). Non-satiable (c). Insatiable (d). All satiable
The following are the basic economics problems except ……………. (a). What to produce (b). How to produce (c). For whom to produce (d). None of the above
One of these is not an importance of labour (a). Provision of personnel (b). Production of goods and services (c). Operation of machines (d). Residential building
The mean of the following data is 10, 12, 18, 16, 20, is (a). 16 (b). 15.5 (c). 20 (d). 15.2
………………. is the satisfaction of one’s want at the expense of another (a). Opportunity cost (b). Scale of preference (c). Wants (d). Desire
…………. economics is concerned with the study of economics planning and national economics (a). Applied (b). Business (c). Development (d). Mathematical
One of the following is not an importance of opportunity cost (a). Wise choice (b). Financial prudence (c). Preparation of budget (d). Decision making
………… is called the father of Economics (a). Alfred Marshall (b). Adams Smith (c). Lord Robbins (d). John Stuart Mill
………. arises as a result of numerous human wants (a). Needs (b). Choice (c). Scarcity (d). Expectations
……….. problem is what people encounter in the society while attempting to satisfy their wants (a). Financial (b). Economics (c). Customer (d). Production
Government draws a scale of preference to help them solve the problem of (a). Wants (b). Choice (c). Scarcity (d). Budget
The following is not a factor of production (a). Land (b). Capital (c). Labour (d). None of the above
One of the following is not an advantage of Macro-Economics (a). Stability of price (b). Balance of payment (c). Making of policies (d). Full payment
Economic is regarded as science because its scientific method involves the following (a). Formulating the laws (b). Formulating laws (c). Observation (d). None of the above
………… is defined as the most frequently occurring number in a set of numbers (a). the mode (b). The median (c). Mean (d). Tendency
………… is made assets used in production (a). Land (b). Building (c). Capital (d). Labour
The most pressing wants or needs come first before the least ones under …………… (a). Wants (b). Scale (c). Choice (d). Scale of preference
__________economics is the branch of economics that deals with economic action or behaviour of individuals, household and firms. (a) micro (b) macro
All those except one is not a feature of land (a). It is immobile (b). It is a free gift (c). It is man made (d). Variability
The following are the factors which determine what to produce except one (a). Market product (b). Cost of production (c). Consumer income (d). Consumer needs
The supply of land is limited (a) True (b) False
The first economic problem to consider is …………… (a). How to produce (b). From whom to produce (c). Reason to produce (d). What to produce
………. is an advantage of mode (a). It is difficult to calculate (b). It is easy to determine (c). It gives an exact value (d). It tends to ignore extreme value
One of the following is not a factor which determines who to produce for (a). Level of income (b). Production function (c). Type of economic system (d). Satisfaction of wants
………. is all forms of human efforts put into or utilized in production (a). Capital (b). Entrepreneur (c). Labour (d). Land
These are the importance of land EXCEPT______ (a) construction purpose (b) farming purpose (c) has feeling (d) collateral security
The alternative use in economics means that these scarce resources can be used for _______ (a) same purpose (b) all purpose (c) different purpose (d) all of the above
If the price of the commodity decrease people will buy _______ (a) more (b) little (c) small (d) less
One of these is not a factors which determine how to produce (a) satisfaction of wants (b) production function (c) relative cost (d) technique of production
_________ is the factors of production that co-ordinates and organises is the factors of production that co-ordinates and organises other factors of production (a) capital (b) entrepreneur (c) labour (d) land
________ is the average of a series of figures or value (a) mode (b) median (c) mean (d) all of the above
______ is a diagram showing a relationship between two quantities (a) graph (b) table (c) Chart (d) curves
Which of these is a factor which determine efficient use of resources (a) cost of production (b) quality of labour (c) consumer’s need (d) cost of production
_______ can also be defined as the creation of utility (a) demand (b) choice (c) production (d) supply
Economics as a social science subject is also concerned with the study of firms or companies and ________ (a) collection of data (b) ranking of needs (c) production (d) scarcity
________ is also called measure of location (a) mean (b) central tendency (c) economics (d) opportunity cost
______ is the average of two middle numbers (a) mode (b) mean (c) median (d) all of the above
It is not the entrepreneur that bear the risks and take major decision of the business (a) True (b) False
There are_________ types of labour (a) 10 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 2
________ production is the extraction of raw material provided by nature (a) primary (b) secondary (c) tertiary (d) all of the above
_____ define economics as a study of mankind in the ordinary business of life (a) Adam smith (b) Alfred marshal (c) John Stuart (d) Lord Robbins
The reward of labour is profit (a) True (b) False

Economics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.A 2.A 3.A 4.C 5.C 6.A 7.D 8.C 9.A

10.B 11.D 12.C 13.C 14.C 15.C 16.B 17.D

18.C 19.C 20.D 21.D 22.D 23.A 24.B 25.C

26.C 27.B 28.A 29.D 30.D 31.B 32.C 33.A

34.C 35.D 36.A 37.C 38.C 39.B 40.D 41.B

42.A 43.C 44.C 45.A 46.A 47.C 48.B 49.C

50.B 51.A 52.C 53.C 54.B 55.C 56.B 57.D 58.A 59.B 60.B

THEORY:

Answer three questions No one is compulsory

Find the mean, mode, and median of the following set of numbers 8, 16, 24, 8, 12, 18, 24, 10, 16, 20, 24, 24, 12, 24, 12, 16, 18, 18,.
Write short note on the four basic economics problem
i. What is production?

Ii. State the factors of production and their reward

i. Define economics

ii. State five reasons why we study economics

State and explain the five basic concepts of economics

SS1 Ede Yoruba Examination Question For First Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

EDE YORUBA

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A:

IBEERE IDANWO SAA KINNI

Ka akaye yi daradara, ki o si dahun awon I beeere abe re

AKAYE

Owo se Pataki, o se koko. Bi o tile je pe owo ko fe ki enikeni damoran irar se lo je ko ye ki o di oga fun epikeni to oba oke ba fi se buruji fun laye atijo, bi enikeni ba sise to lowo aarin ebi, nipa owo pe ko niran, ko je ki won di agberaga. Bi awon baba wa ti ni itara ise aje to won kii salla gbona alumokoro wa owo lode oni awon eniyan n digunjale won n seso won si n gbe kokeeni lati lowo

IBEERE

1. Ayoka yii fi han pe owo je (a) agberage (b) oga (C)iranse (d)onitara

2. Ona wo lo dara ju lati lowo? (a)oso sise (b)omo gbigbe (C)ise sise (d) gbigbo tebi

3. Akole ti o ba ayoka yii mu ju ni____ (a) awon adigunjale (b)o wo nini (c) danfaani olowo (d)gbigbe kokeeni

4. Bi enikan ba lowo ni aye atijo gbogbo ebi ni yoo. (a)maa a fun (b)janfaani re (c)korira re (d)maa ki ku oriire

5. Ewo ni o lodi si ona ti won fi n gbo owo lode oni? (a)idigunjale (b)oso-sise (c) gbigbona to to (d)gbigbe ko keeni

AKAYE 2

Pie aye ai a o kuku se ka to sorun abi ta ni eni ti o lo sorun to tun pada walokan kolade omo olowookere to ti fi bere si jaye bi eni je isu bo se n gbe dudu nion gbe pupa e nu si ti gbooro tele, kop e ko jinna baba ti o gbojule lo solakeji ko ri owo jaye mo bayii ni gbogbo omoge eleyin ju ege ati awer ore se yera fun-un Kolade dara po mo egbe gbrewiri kop e ko jinna ti o di omo gne ni owo palaba won be segi laifia oro gun kolade di ero ewon ni bi to ti n jiya bi eni isu ah! Aye naa ni osika yoo ti maa liya ko otun je t’orun eyi ni gbolohun ti o jadekeyin lenu kolade ki o to di ero orun

IBEERE

6. Akole wo lo ba ayoka yii mu julo? (a) agbojulogun (b)gbewiri (c) ole (d) afajo

7. Ki ni oruko omo baba olowookere? (a)dapo (b)omega (C)kolawole (d)kolade

8. Kini o mu kolade dara po mo egba gbewiri (a) awon ore re po nibe (b)kori owo jaye mo (c) oogba e won dara (d)ore

9. Gbewiri tumo si (a)ole (b)e won (c)ore (d)omoge

10. Ta ni o dara po mo egbe gbewiri (a)eleyinju-ege (b)jide (c)kolade dojo

11. The teacher is writing on the chalk board (a)olukonaa nko iwe si ptako (b)oluko kowe (c) oluko ti kowe (d)oluko ati iwe

12. God of wisdom (a)olorun oye (b)olorun iwe (c)olorun ogbon (d)olorun eledaa

13. Eya ara ifo ti a Ko lee foju ri ni___(a)komookun (b)ete (C)imu (d)eyin

14. Ewo n leya ara afipe ni nu awon wonji (a)oju (b)ete (C)ori (d)eti

15. Eya ra afipe asunsi ni (a)eyin oke (b)imu (C)aja enu (d)ete isale

16. Konsonati /f/ je iro___(a)afeyinfetepe (blaferigipe (c)aranmupe (d)afitannape

17.______ni apeere konsonanti afeyinfetepe (a)t(b)f()b (d)d 18. Apapo iro faweli inu ede Yoruba ni (a)merin (b)meta (Chewa (d)mejila

19. Silebu meloo lo wa ninu oro yii palapala (a)meji (b)meta (C)merin (djeyokan

20. Tun oro yi ko ni ilana akoto ode-oni “biotilejepe” (a) bio tile jepe (b)bio tile je p lejepe” (a) bio tile jepe (b)bi o tile je pe (C)bi o ti le je pe (d)bi o tile je pe

21. Ewo ni kii se ise isembaye ninu awon wonyi (a)ope kiko (b)aro dída (c)eni hinun

22. Bi oko ba moju aya tan, alarina a yeba jemo asa__(a)igbeyawo (b)isinku (C)ogun jija (d) ogun pin pin

eree

23. Ewo ni a le fi ewa/erree se ninu awon ounje wonyi? (a)olele (bojojo (c)asaro (d)iyan

24. Pari owe yii “ile la n wo ki a to” (a)jeun (b)woso (c)kole (d)somo loruko

25. Fi aake kori tumo si_ (a)ko jale (b)binu (c)salo (d)fariga

26. Awo ya tumo si (a)sun (b)binu (c)asiritu (d)ko jale

27. Awon ijebu feran ati maa je_ (a)ikokore (b)lafun (C)ekuru diyan

28. Kini a npe omo ti ko ba gbekoo? (a)oponu (b)abiiko (Colosi (d)akoogba

29. Ewo ni omoluabi? (a)olofoofo ( bolooto (c)alagidi (d)alafojudi

30. Kilo je ki iwa omoluabi gbinle lawujo? (a)sise itoju ile eni (b)lilo hso asiko (c) kikobiara si alejo sise (d)kiko omo ni eko ile

IPIN KEJI Dahun ibeere meta

1. Daruko ise abinibi ile yoruba marun-un pelu ohun elo won 2a. Daruko orisi iro ede meta

b. pin konsonanti sowoo meta

3a. Daruko awon apeere iwa omoluabi mejo

b. So anfaani iwa omoluabi meji

4. Daruko ounje abinibi ile Yoraba marun ki o si salaye bi a se nse eyokan lara won

5. So akanlo ede marun-un pelu itumo won

SS1 English Language Examination Question For First Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S.S. 1

ENGLISH – STUDIES

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A:

SPEECH WORK

Choose from the options, the word that has the correct stress.

1. indoctrinate (a) In-doc-tri-nate (b) In-DOC-tri-nate (c) In-doc-TRI-nate

(d) In-doc –tri –NATE

2. refinery (a) RE-fin-e-ry (b) Re-FIN-e-ry (c) re-fin-E-ry (d) Re-fin-e-RY

3. phenomenal (a) PHE-no-me-nal (b) Phe –No-me-nal (c) Phe-no-ME-nal (d) Phe-no-me-NAL

4. consistency (a) CON-sis-ten-cy (b) Con-SIS-ten-cy (c) Cons-sis-TEN-cy d. Con-sis-tenCY

5. acrobatic (a) a-CRO-ba-tic (b) A-cro-ba-tic (c) a-cro-BA-tic (d) A-cro-ba-TIC

SECTION B: GRAMMAR

From the list of words lettered A to D, choose the one that is nearest in meaning to the underlined words.

We must move with the times as there is no point in clinging to antiquated ideas. a. foolish (b) outdated (c) unscientific (d) useless (e) wrong
Religious leaders are supposed to be beneficient (a) clean (b) holy (c) honest (d) kind (e) malevolent
The minister’s response to the question on whether or not he would retire at the end of his tenure was evasive (a) concrete (b) clear (c) definite (d) elusive (e) undecided
Femi’s comments were germane to the issue under discussion. (a) complimentary ( b) confidential ( c) insignificant (d) redundant (e) relevant
The manufactures found the new economic policy auspicious to their plan. (a) atrocious ( b) favourable (c) reliable (d) treacherous (e) unfavourable

From the list of words lettered A to D, choose the one that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word

The guest of honour urged the contestants to show the spirit of sportsmanship, either in victory or in———— (a) defeat (b) success (c) suffering (d) failure
The reply of the accused to the question was cautious rather than ——- (a) attentive (b) scrupulous (c) hasty (d) thoughtful
The bride carried a bouquet of natural flowers (a) artificial B local C. imported D. genuine
Musa is a giant of a man, but his brother is more or less a ——— a. diminutive b. dwarf c. huge man d. pigmy e. robot
In many ways, my parents are very conservative but there are times when they surprise me with their ————— ideas of family planning. A. critical b. liberal c. modern d. new e. orthodox

SECTION C: VOCABULARY

Complete each of the sentences with one words in the brackets: (secular, ethics, denomination, doctrine, pilgrimage, fanatics, worship, Bible, monotheist)

1. The Catholic ______ is very conservative

2. The ______ I made last year cost me a lot of money

3. The _____ destroyed cars and house

4. A place of _____ should remain sacred

5. The Muslims are _____ they believe in one God.

6. The ______ is the holy book of Christians

7-10. Write 4 words associated Library or Entertainment

SECTION D: LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

1. ‘Her cheeks appear as the dawn of day.’ Is an example of _____(a) metaphor (b) simile (c) personification

2. ‘He is no good at crickets, he has okro fingers. ‘ is an example of ____(a) simile (b) irony (c) metaphor

3. ‘Let the floods clap their hands.’ Is an example of _____(a) simile (b) personification (c) irony

4. ‘Charles is so brilliant that he passed one subject out of his nine papers.’ Is an example of _____ (a) metaphor (b) simile (c) irony

5. ‘As bright as snow’ is an example of____(a) irony (b) metaphor (c) simile

SECTION E: COMPREHENSION: TRANSPORTATION

AIR TRANSPORTATION. Taxi- The process of a plane moving slowly along the ground before beginning to run forward for take-off.

Runway: This is a wide path from which aircraft take off and on which they land. Tarmac: This is a surface of a road, runway at an airport. E,g The plane was waiting on a tarmac. Air hostess: A young woman who looks after passengers in an aircraft. Flight: A journey in a plane.

Air borne: In the air. If a plane is airborne, it is in the air.

Radar: This is the method of showing the direction and the distance of a plane by means of radio waves. Touch down: A plane touches down when it lands. Hangar: This is where aircraft are housed. Control tower: This is where air traffic controllers sit and direct plane traffic

Cockpit: A compartment in which the pilot of an aeroplane sits. SEA TRANSPORTATION , Maritime

Mast: a long pole set upright on a ship to support the sail or flag. International waters: waters across the country’s water territory. It is called waters- not water.

Berth: a place in port where a ship can be moored.

Boatyard: this is a place where boats are built or repaired or fasten by rope. Harbor: A place of shelter for ship. Quayside: This is the side or edge of a quay.

Ocean liner- Ship used to carry passengers and some cargo is across the ocean. Cruise ship- This type of ship is used for adventurism. Cabin: This is a private room in a ship. Yacht: A boat or small ship, usually with sails, often with an engine, built and used for racing or cruising. Row-row ship- This is used to convey cars into the country. Such ship will be widely opened for various cars on the ship to be driven out. Dredging: This is the clearing or deepening the river or body of water.

Dock: This is a platform built on the shore [wharf].

Coast: This is land along the sea. Crew: A group of people who works or operates on a ship. Captain: This is a commander of a ship. Off shore: In or on the sea, not far from the coast. The opposite of this is ‘on-shore’

Flag: This is the flag a country mounted on a ship with which it sails. Anchor: This is something, usually a heavy piece of metal with points which dig into the sea-bed, used to hold a boat or a ship.

RAIL, Coach: A passenger railway train. Freight: Goods or cargo. Locomotive: Engine that goes from place to place using its own power, especially used to pull railway trains. Railway yard: A place where trains are parked or maintained. Commuter trains: These carry passengers between large cities and the surrounding suburbs. Freight service: This is a service which involves transportation of goods from one place to another.

Rail tracks. These are tracks on which a train moves.

QUESTIONS

1. Define Air Transportation

2. Define Sea Transportation

3. Define Rail Transportation

4. Mention 3 words that related to Air transportation and explain them

5. Mention 3 words related to Sea transportation and explain them

SECTION F: COMPOSITION

1. Write a narrative essay that ends with “It pays to be hardworking”

2. Define Narrative Essay

3. Define Expository essay

4. Define Essay writing

5. Write the types of essay that you know

SECTION G: Idiomatic Expression

WRITE TRUE OR FALSE

6. To play to the gallery – to try to achieve cheap popularity.___________

7. To chase one’s shadow– to deceive oneself.________

8. To throw light – to explain.______________

9. The breathe one’s last – to die.____________

10. To call to a halt – to start something.____________

SS1 Financial Accounting Examination Question For First Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

FINANCIAL – ACCOUNTING

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A:

One of the following is NOT a quality of accounting information (a) Relevance (b) Timeless (c) competitors (d) verifiable
This includes making journal entries so that your accounts will balance (a) data recording (b) data processing (c) data reporting (d) data collection
There is no accurate record as to when account started (a) True (b) False
Nigeria accounting standard board was born to set standard to guide accounting operation in what year (a) 1494 (b) 1854 (c) 1982 (d) 1965
Asset = _________ + liabilities (a) capital (b) assets (c) cash (d) commodity
A good accountant must possess the following qualities EXCEPT________ (a) objectivity (b) honesty (c) politicians (d) integrity
In _______ cash book, there is separate column for date, particulars folio, cash and bank (a) one column (b) double column (c) three column (d) none of the above
Where rules and guideline are neglected, the accounting information will not be _____ (a) reliable (b) verifiable (c) relevance (d) comparability
The following are users of accounting information EXCEPT ______ (a) banks (b) owners (c) farmers (d) creditors
_____ is an amount owed by the business to outsiders (a) capitals (b) Assets (c) money (d) liabilities
_______ is the process of recording data relating to accounting transaction in the accounting book (a) book recording (b) book organizing (c) book collection (d) book keeping
________ account are accounts for expenses, incurred , income, received , losses and gains (a) real (b) nominal (c) impersonal (d) personal
The following are sources of documents EXCEPT______ (a) credit note (b) out voice (c) Receipt (d) debit note
In – transactions, buyer pay immediately for goods bought (a) credit (b) market (c) cash (d) capital
_______ is the process of recording, classifying, measuring and communicating accounting information to its users (a) book keeping (b) book recording (c) accounting (d) accounting recording
The principle of double entry operates on the basis that every financial transaction must have two _______ (a) parts (b) side (c) aspects (d) none of the above

Companies and allied matter Act ________ (as amended in 2004) (a) 1990 (b) 1986 (c) 1960 (d) 1870
__________ are the properties of a business and are expected to be of future benefit (a) capital (b) Assets (c) Liabilities (d) all of the above
ICA Scotland was establish in what year (a) 1854 (b) 1880 (c) 1999 (d) 1965
Accounting is not used for tax assessment (a) True (b) False
__________ is the final destination of all transactions in the subsidiary books (a) banks (b) ledgers (c) cash book (d) all of the above
__________are customers that sell things on credit (a) owners (b) accountant (c) creditors (d) debtors
_______ is a basis for business language (a) creditor (b) accounting (c) book keeping (d) recording
Who gives under the principle of double entries (a) debit (b) credit (c) debit and credit (d) none of the above
________ is an integral of accounting (a) data collection (b) management (c) booking keeping (d) accounting recording
The two side of accounting equation must not be equal (a) True (b) False
A nurse is to the medical doctor just as book keeper is the _________ (a) company (b) accountant (c) teacher ( d) business
_________ Is the first stage of the accounting cycle (a) reporting (b) data processing (c) data collection (d) all of the above
ICA England and Walesa was establish in what year (a) 1965 (b) 1880 (c) 1990 (d) 1854
_________ is a document sent by a seller to the customer for reduction in the amount owe by him (a invoice (b) debit note (c) credit note (d) Receipt
______ is the book of original or prime entry (a subsidiary book (b) accounting (c) credit note (d) book keeping
Association of public accountant in USA was establish in what year (a) 1965 (b) 1494 (c) 1887 (d) 1982
____ can be linked to the merchants in the Babylonian and Assyrian civilization (a) data collection (b) book keeping (c) accounting (d) trade
There are number of limitation to accounting information (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 10 (d) 2
One of these is not a division of ledgers (a) sales or debtors (b) normal (c) impersonal (d) private
_______ cannot help for decision making (a) consumer (b) accounting (c) book keeping (d) owners
Record keeping is as old as (a) God (b) man (c) creation (d) the earth
ICAN of Nigeria was establish and affiliated with the professional institutes in ______ and _____ (a) Britain, Italy (b) Britain, Nigeria (c) USA, Italy (d) Britain, USA
_________ interprets the accounting record to its owner (a) management (b) owners (c) accountant (d) book keeping
The history of accounting is not complete without mentioning the name (a) John Smith (b) Luccapaciolo (c) James pacido (d) Lucca Pociolo
_______ is book of recording detailed particulars of all money received and paid (a) sales book (b) pay book (c) cash book (d) buyer book
The following are qualities of accounting information EXCEPT__________ (a) Reliable (b) comparability (c) comprehensiveness (d) government
The total amount invested by the owner in a business is called (a) credit (b) capital (c) time (d) liabilities
_______ ledgers are for creditors accounts and debtors account (a) personal (b) private (c) general (d) normal
The following are accounting stages EXCEPT________ (a) data processing (b) data collection (c) accounting recording (d) reporting
The systematic recording of business transactions in monetary terms is A. auditing B. book-keeping C. debiting D. crediting
Cash book also performs the function of a ledger (a) True (b) False
______ refers to the guidelines that professional needs to follow while practicing accounting (a) data recording (b) accounting ethics (c) accounting processing (d ) data collection
One of the following is quality of an accountant (a) knowledgeable (b) wise (c) confidentiality (d) liar
The double entry principle of accounting was developed by A. Frank Wood B. Akintola Williams C. Luca Pacioli D. William Pickles
A book that contains the accounts for the financial transactions of an organisation is the A. journal B. ledger C. folio D. register
This is the book of original entry in which credit sales are recorded before posting to the ledger (a) sales day book (b) subsidiary (c) credit note (d) debit note
There are _____ books of accounts (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 2 (d) 1
ICA of Nigeria was establish when (a) 1854 (b) 1880 (c) 1982 (d) 1965
SAS means (a) statement of all standard (b) state of subsidiary (c) statement of accounting standard (d) statement of Africa standard
Lucca paciolo introduce _______ in accounting (a) single entry (b) data processing (c) double entry (d) cash book
_______ require skill and knowledge (a) data recording (b) book keeping (c) accounting (d) accounting reporting
There are _____ steps in recording cash transactions (a) 10 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 2
There are accounting for something we can see touch or move (a) normal accounts (b) real accounts (c) impersonal accounts (d) personal account
What side of your hand receives values in ledger (a) right (b) left (c) right and left (d) none of the above

Financial Accounting Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.A 3.A 4.D 5.A 6.C 7.B 8.A 9.C

10.D 11.D 12.D 13.B 14.C 15.C 16.B 17.B

18.B 19.A 20.B 21.B 22.C 23.C 24.B 25.C

26.B 27.B 28.C 29.D 30.C 31.A 32.C 33.C

34.D 35.B 36.A 37.C 38.D 39.C 40.B 41.C

42.D 43.B 44.A 45.D 46.B 47.A 48.B 49.C

50.C 51.B 52.D 53.A 54.A 55.C 56.C 57.B 58. 59.B 60.B

THEORY

Answer three questions NO 1 is compulsory

Complete the gap

Assets liabilities capital

300,000 ? 190,000
15,653 4,532 ?
130,000 ? 90,000
? 18,000 14,000
? 140,000 70,000

i. Define accounting

ii. What are the accounting stages?

Write short note on the following
Assets
Capital
Liabilities
Double entry principle
Cash transaction

Write out the full meaning of the following words
NASB
ACA
ICAN
ANAN
ICA

SS1 Food and Nutrition Examination Question For First Term

S.S.S 1 (ONE)

FOOD – NUTRITION

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A:

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS TIME: 1 HR 45 MIN

Which of the following elements is unique to protein? (a) carbon (b) hydrogen (c) nitrogen (d) oxygen
What is the major cause of obesity? (a) consumption of more foods than the body needs (b) eating more carbohydrates than protein foods (c) consumption of more protein foods than carbohydrates foods (d) eating more fats and oils than the body needs
A diet especially rich in sea food is highly recommended to cure the nutritional disease known as _____ (a) fluorosis (b) goiter (c) marasmus (d) osteomalacia
High intake of iron rich foods during pregnancy prevents _____ (a) kwashiorkor (b) anemia (c) beri- beri (d) pellagra.
Hydrochloric acid which is essential for digestion is found in the _____ (a) stomach (b) mouth (c)pancreas (d) large intestine
The term used to describe the building of tissues is _____ (a) metabolism (b) catabolism (c) homeostasis (d) anabolism
A nutrient that is particularly important for the adolescent girl and pregnant woman is _____ (a) carbohydrate (b) calcium (c) protein (d) iron
Animal products contains almost the same nutrients as _____ (a) pulse and legumes (b) starch roots and plants c. fruits and vegetables d. cereals and grains.
The vitamin responsible for proper absorption of calcium is _____ (a) vitamin D (b) vitamin C (c) vitamin B (d) vitamin A
What makes fresh fruit drinks better than carbonated drinks for children? (a) all parents can prepare them (b) they contain vitamin E (c) they contain vitamin C (d) children are excited by fizzy drinks
A shopping list is usually made by _____ (a) house wife (b) salesman (c) Shopper (d) food contractor
Which of the following is not a factor affecting foods and nutrition? (a) availability of food (b) availability of income (c) food in season (d) hospitality
Which of the following job options is not available in foods and nutrition (a) clinical nutrition (b) dietetic (c) pharmacology (d) teaching
Which of the following carbohydrates is indigestible in man? (a) cellulose (b) fructose (c) protein (d) starch
Galactose is a simple sugar found in _____ (a) cassava (b) fruit (c) meat (d) milk
The breaking down of food in the body is _____ (a) absorption (b) digestion (c) metabolism (d) anabolism
The most important information on a packet of food is _____ (a) name of food (b) expiry date (c) list of ingredients (d) manufacturing date
The basic function of a kitchen is _____ (a) entertainment (b)meal preparation (c) serving food (d) food storage
The most important reason for preserving food is to (a) take care of emergency (b) save time (c) prevent spoilage (d) save money
Which of the following best describes a serviette? (a) dish cloth (b) table napkin (c) table mat (d) tea towel
Fish is a very important source of complete protein because _____ (a) its flash is tender (b) it contains all the essential amino acids (c) the collagen easily converts into gelatin (d) its muscle’s fibres are short
Functions of water in the body include _____ (i) perspiration and excretion (ii) digestion and absorption (iii) regulation of flow of liquids (iv) regulation of temperature ii, iii and iv only (b) i and ii only (c) iii and iv only (d) i, ii and iii only
A drink such as tea is known as _____ (a) squash (b) beverage (c) juice (d) spirit
A dietician in a hospital has the duty of _____ (a) taking charge of the staff during meal service (b) exercising control over the chief cook and servers (c) collaborating with the catering manager to plan meals (d) obtaining supplies and supervising food preparation
Moist heat on starch causes _____ (a) dextrinization (b) coagulation (c) gelatinization (d) caramelization
The most common methods of cooking traditional dishes are _____ (a) boiling and baking (b) roasting and grilling (c) boiling and stewing (d) grilling and baking
Malnutrition is a condition resulting from (a) an insufficient total intake of nutrients (b) an incorrect intake of nutrients (c) a diet that provides excess amount of nutrients (d) a diet that an individual eats everyday
A deficiency of iodine in the body will cause _____ (a) goiter (b) rickets (c) anemia (d) kwashiorkor
The essential substances present in foods are called _____ (a) atoms (b) nutrients (c) compounds (d) elements
In a diet with no carbohydrate and fat, the protein eaten would be used mainly for _____ (a) protection against disease (b) production of heat and energy (c) building and repair (d) maintaining body fluids
Some amino acids are termed essential because _____ (a) they cannot be made by the body (b) the body can make them (c) they are not expensive (d) they are expensive
A mineral element that is important for muscle contraction is _____ (a) copper (b) sodium (c) magnesium (d) iodine
Which of the following sugars is the sweetest? (a) maltose (b) sucrose (c) lactose (d) glucose
Sinks, electric cookers, refrigerators and cabinets are _____ (a) large fixed equipment (b) large movable equipment (c) small equipment (d) labour- saving equipment
Good table manners involves _____ (a) eating slowly and quietly (b) lifting food to mouth (c) eating all food taken on food (d) talking with food in the mouth
Which method of cooking is NOT applicable to eggs? (a) boiling (b) frying (c) grilling (d) poaching
Which of these is not a B complex vitamin? (a) ascorbic acid (b) folic acid (c) thiamine (d) pyridoxine
To avoid food poisoning, all equipment after use should be _____ (a) soaked in hot detergent (b) boiled with heated Water (c) washed and rinsed with clean water (d) washed sparingly
Which of the following materials is most suitable for kitchen sink? (a) stainless steel (b) plastic (c) porcelain (d) galvanized iron
Orange juice is a good source of _____ (a) vitamin B (b) vitamin C (c) calcium (d) iron
A child whose diet consists mainly of hot pap and sugar will suffer from (a) anemia (b) kwashiorkor (c) beriberi (d) scurvy
Steaming is most suitable in cooking for invalids because (a) it can be used for most foods (b) the food is gently cooked (c) it makes the food attractive (d) the food is easily digested
Food items which appear regularly in diet and in large quantity are _____ (a) carbohydrates (b) farm grown (c) staple food (d) convenience foods
Which of the following is the major reason why we cook food? To _____ (a) combine two or more substances (b) change form, colour and size (c) maintain nutritive value (d) increase digestibility
Essential amino acids are obtainable from _____ (a) plant sources only (b) animal sources only (c) fats and minerals (d) plants and animal sources
The carbohydrate in milk is called _____ (a) fructose (b) maltose (c) lactose (d) glucose
Food in season can be used in order to _____ (a) save money (b) supply nutrients to the clients (c) allow for more bulk in the family meal (d) save time in preparation
Poor vision van be caused by inadequacy of _____ (a) vitamin C (b) iron and calcium (c) vitamin D and K (d) vitamin A
The correct formula for carbohydrate is _____ (a) CO₂H (b) CH₂O (c) C₂H₂O (d) C₂HO
Good health means _____ (a) eating good food and being well (b) state of being physically fit in health (c) a state of complete physical, mental and social well- being and not just the absence of disease (d) eating good food and wearing clean clothes in a clean environment
A weight watcher should eat more of _____ (a) fruits and vegetables (b) fats and butter (c) cassava and cocoa yam (d) bread and butter
Which of the following food items should not be refrigerated? (a) eggs (b) left- over foods (c) margarine (d) flour
A perforated spoon is used for _____ (a) steaming (b) boiling (c) plastering (d) frying
Strong teeth and bones formation requires _____ (a) protein and vitamin C (b) calcium and phosphorus (c) calcium and vitamin C (d) vitamin F and calcium
The first two groups of sugar are _____ (a) monosaccharide and polysaccharides (b) sugar cane and sugar beets (c) monosaccharide and disaccharides (d) glucose and starch
Which of the following is not a nutrient? (a) carbohydrates (b) fats (c) water (d) hydrogen
Proteins are made up of _____ (a) enzymes (b) amino acids (c) nitrogen (d) phosphorus
A dietary source of carbohydrate is _____ (a) oil seeds (b) tubers & roots (c) soya beans (d) legumes
Swelling of the neck is due to an over- secretion of a gland called _____ (a) adrenal (b) endocrine (c) pituitary (d) thyroid
The mineral element which is important in blood clotting is _____ (a) calcium (b) magnesium (c) chloride (d) chemical

Food and Nutrition Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.B 3.D 4.B 5.A 6.B 7.C 8.D 9.A

10.B 11.C 12.D 13.D 14.A 15.D 16.B 17.B

18.B 19.C 20.B 21.B 22.D 23.B 24.C 25.C

26.C 27.A 28.A 29.B 30.A 31.A 32.C 33.D

34.B 35.A 36.C 37.A 38.C 39.D 40.B 41.B

42.D 43.A 44.C 45.B 46.C 47.A 48.D 49.B

50.C 51.A 52.D 53.D 54.C 55.C 56.C 57.B 58.D 59.D 60.A

Theory:

Answer three questions from this section

Identify in a tabular form one deficiency disease of each of the following food nutrients (i) Iodine (ii) Calcium (iii) Fluorine (iv) Proteins (v) Fats & Oils

(b) State 5 functions of proteins

Define, list and classify vitamins

(b) Define, list and classify the mineral elements

State 5 functions of water

(b) State 5 functions of fats and oils

List 4 functions of vitamin C

(b) List 3 food sources of vitamin C

SS1 Further Mathematics Examination Question For First Term

SSS 1 FURTHER – MATHEMATICS

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS TIME: 2 HRS 30 MIN

SECTION A: OBJECTIVES

The Basic concept of laws of indices with a number of form a^m , if a is the real number, what is a called? (a) base (b) index (c) decimal
The Basic concept of laws of indices with a number of form a^m , if m is the super script, what is m called? (a) base (b) index (c) law
p³x p² is ______(a) p ⁶ (b) p ⁵ (c) p -4 (d) p ^-5
The Basic concept of laws of indices states in multiplication of a ^m x a ⁿ is equal to_________(a) a^{m + n} (b) a^{m + p} (c) a^{m – n}
The Basic concept of laws of indices states in division of a^m ÷ aⁿ is equal to _____(a) a^m ÷ aⁿ (b) m^m ÷ aⁿ (c) a^m + aⁿ
Find the basic law of (p³)² is ___(a) p⁶ (b) P6 (c) P5 (d) P⁵
Find a in a^m ÷ a^m (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) -1
Solve this exponential equation (¹/2) ^x = 8. Find X (a) 3 (b) -4 (c) -3 (d) 4
Solve this exponential equation 3^x = ¹/81. Find x. (a) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (d) -4
Solve this exponential equation 4/2^x = 64 ^x. find X (a) ²/8 (b) ²/7 (c) ³/7 (c) ^-2/7
Solve this exponential equation of quadratic form 2^2x – 6 (2^x) + 8 = 0. When y = 4 then, and When y = 2 then. Find x. (a) y=2,4 (b) y=4,5 (c) y=1,2 (d) y=2,2
Solve this exponential equation of quadratic form 5^2x + 4 x 5^x+1 – 125 = 0. Find x. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Convert this index to logarithm form 25^1/2 = 5. (a) Log₂₅=¹/2 (b) Log₂₅5=¹/2 (c) Log₂₅5=¹/5
Solve this logarithmic equation Log₁₀ (x² – 4x + 7) = 2. Without using quadratic equation is _____ (a) x² – 4x – 93 = 0 (b) x² – 4x – 93 = 2
A ____is denoted by capital letters such as P, Q, and R e.t.c while small letters are used to denote the elements e.g. a, b, c (a) bet (b) set (c) settings (d) law indices
The number of element in set is called _______(a) cardinality (b) feasibility (c) ordinarily
Find the element or odd number of this set when A = {Odd numbers from 1 to 21}

(a) { 1,3,5,5,7,9,11,13,15,15,17,19,21}

(b) { 1,3,5,7,9,11,13,15,17,19,21, 23}

18. ____ are the root of rational numbers whose value cannot be expressed as exact fractions. (a) set (b) fraction (c) surds (d) exponential

19. Simplify this in its basic form √45___(a) 3√5 (b) 3√6 (c) 3√3 (d) 3√8

20. Simplify this as a single surd 2√5 ___(a) √20 (b) √ (4 x 5) (c) √4 x √5

SECTION B: THEORY – Answer 5 question only

1. Solve the following

(i) 32 ^3/5 (ii) 343 ^2/3 (iii) 64 ^2/3

(iv) (0.001)³ (v) 14 ⁰

2. Evaluate using logarithm

(i) 4627 x 29.3

(ii) 8198 ÷ 3.905

3. Write down the elements in each of the following sets.

(i) F = {factors of 30}

(ii) M = {Multiples of 4 up to 40}

4. Given that µ= {all the days of the week}, B= {all days of the week whose letter begin with s}

List all the elements of µ
List the members of B
What is n (µ) 4. What is n(µ) + n(B)

5a. Define set

5b. List 3 types of set that you know and draw a diagram to show an example

6a. Define Surds

6b. List 2 types of surds

7. If the universal set µ= {x: 1≤ x ≤ 12} and its subsets D, F and G are given as follows. D = {x: 2<x<8}, F={x: 4≤ x≤ 10}, G={x: 1< x ≤ 4}

Find (a) D U F (b) D n F (c) G¹(d) (D n G)¹

Further Mathematics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1. A 2.B 3.B 4.A 5.C

6. A 7. B 8.C 9.A 10.B

11.A 12.A 13.B 14.A 15.B

16.A 17.C 18.C 19.A 20.A

Solution for No 1.

(i) 32 ^3/5 Ans= 2³=8

(ii) 343 ^2/3 Ans= 7²=49

(iii) 64 ^2/3 Ans = 4²

(iv) (0.001)³ Ans= ¹/₁₀ ⁹

(v) 14 ⁰ Ans= 1

Solution for No 2.

(i) 4627 x 29.3 Ans= 135600

(ii) 8198 ÷ 3.905 Ans=209.9

Solution for No3.

(i) F = {factors of 30} Ans= (1,3,5,6,10,15,30)

(ii) M = {Multiples of 4 up to 40}

Ans= (4,8,12,16,20,24,28,32,36,40)

Solution for No 4

1.µ = {Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday}

2. B = {Sunday, Saturday}

3. n (µ) = 7

4. n (µ) + n(B) = 7 + 2= 9

Solutions for No.5

5a. Define set Ans= A ____is denoted by capital letters such as P, Q, and R e.t.c while small letters are used to denote the elements e.g. a, b, c

5b. List 3 types of set that you know and draw a Ans= universal, union, intersection , complementary

Solution for No 6

6a. Surds are the root of rational numbers whose value cannot be expressed as exact fractions.

6b. Types of surd surds are conjugate , similar , simplification, addition, multiplication etc.

Solution for No 7

µ = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}

D = {3, 4, 5, 6, 7}

F = {4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}

G = {2, 3, 4}

D U F ={ 3, 4, 5, 6, 7,8, 9,10}
DnF = {4, 5, 6, 7}
G¹= { 1, 5, 6, 7, 8,9,10,11,12]
(D n G)¹

D n G = {3, 4}

(D n G)¹= {1, 2, 5, 6, 7,8, 9,10,11,12}

SS1 Geography Examination Question For First Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

GEOGRAPHY

SECTION A

________ isdefined as the description of the earth. (a) Physics (b) Agriculture(c) Geography
One of the following is wrong about Geography (a) It helps us to study physical things around us (b) it helps us to study temperature and rainfall of places only (c) it enables us to study the way of life of other people in other parts of the world
Geography is a social science subject which deals with the study of (a) plants and animals (b) man and his environment (c) crop planting and animal rearing
Geography cuts across the following other fields of human study except (a) Economics (b) Government (c) Music
The word “Geo” in Greek means (a) describe (b) power (c) earth
Which of the following statement is not true of the solar system? (a) The rays of the sun gives energy of the system (b) All the planets rotate around the sun (c) The planets revolve around the sun.
Which two planets lie between the sun and the earth? (a) Venus and Mars (b) Venus and Jupiter (c) Mercury and Venus
The planet with the largest orbit around the sun is (a) the Earth (b) Pluto (c) Jupiter
Which of the following planet has no satellite? (a) Venus (b) Uranus (c) Neptune
The planet often considered as the earth’s twin because of their close similarity in size, mass and density is (a) Venus (b) Saturn (c) Mercury
______ is the farthest planet from the sun and the coldest (a) Pluto(b) Jupiter (c) Uranus
The planet earth lies between (a) mercury and venus (b) mars and Jupiter (c) venus and mars
Which of the following is NOT a proof of the earth’s sphericity? (a) circumnavigation of the earth (b) deflection of wind (c) the circular horizon
The earth is the ……. largest planet in the solar system (a) third (b) fifth (c) sixth
The shape of the earth can also be described as ……. shape (a) egg (b) graph (c) geoid
Lines of longitude can best be described as (a) The angular distance of a place north or south of the equator (b) semi circle on the globe (c) imaginary lines on the earth’s surface joining the north and south poles
The angular distance of a point on the earth’s surface measured in degrees from the centre of the earth is known as (a) latitude (b) longitude (c) international date line
The shortest flying route between any two points on the earth surface lies along the (a) Tropic of Capricorn (b) Tropic of Cancer (c) Great circle
A great circle can be described as (a) a line of longitude (b) the line of latitude (c) a shortest distance between two points on the globe
The following are the similarities between lines of longitude and latitude except (a) both are used to calculate local time of a place (b) both are numbered in degree (c) both contain great circles
If the time at the Greenwich Meridian is 11.00 am, what would be the local time at a place 75⁰W? (a) 6:00am (b) 6:00pm (c) 7:00am
Which of the following is not a characteristic of lines of longitude? They …… (a) converge at the poles (b) run from east to west (c) run from north to south
Latitude 66 ½⁰S marks the…….. (a) Antarctic circle (b) Arctic circle (c) Tropic of cancer
What is the approximate distance of town X from the equator, if it is located on latitude 14⁰N? (a) 1232 km (b) 1555km (c) 1675km
Which of the following planets has twelve satellites? (a) Jupiter (b) Mercury (c) Saturn
The angular distance of a point on the earth’s surface measured in degrees from the centre of the earth is known as (a) latitude (b) longitude (c) international date line
The shortest flying route between any two points on the earth surface lies along the (a) Tropic of Capricorn (b) Tropic of Cancer (c) Great circle
A great circle can be described as (a) a line of longitude (b) the line of latitude (c) a shortest distance between two points on the globe
The following are the similarities between lines of longitude and latitude except (a) both are used to calculate local time of a place (b) both are numbered in degree (c) both contain great circles
The part of the earth where living things are found is known as _______. (a) hydrosphere (b) atmosphere (c) biosphere
The percentage composition of oxygen in the Atmosphere is ________. (a) 78% (b) 21% (c) 23%
Which of the following minerals is found in the upper lithosphere? (a) Olivine (b) Magnesium (c) Aluminium
Human beings live in which area? (a) Atmosphere (b) Hydrosphere (c) Lithosphere
The part of the earth occupied by water is called _______. (a) biosphere (b) atmosphere (c) hydrosphere
The barysphere can also be referred to as (a) crust (b) core (c) mantle
The percentage composition of Nitrogen in the Atmosphere is —–(a)78% (b) 0.03% (c) 21%
Which of the following minerals is found in the lower lithosphere? (a) Olivine (b) Magnesium (c) Carbon
The temperature of the core is ….. (a) 200^oC (b) 2500⁰C (c) 2000⁰C
The density of the mantle is ————- (a) 3.0 (b) 2.7 (c) 3.3
Real objects can be divided into (a) continuous and circulatory (b) discrete and continuous (c) circulatory and discrete
Raster images are used to (a) analyse data (b) interpret data (c) store data
All are physical objects except (a) road (b) mountain (c) river
Which of these is a socio-cultural feature? (a) airport (b) trees (c) lake
‘Geo’ refers to (a) description (b) space (c) earth
The unfolds of the wrinkles produced in Fold Mountain is known as____ (a) synclines (b) anticlines (c) push ups (d) push downs
Which of these is not a fold mountain (a) atlas mountain (b) Himalayas (c) mountain Kenya (d) alps
Which of these mountains is produced by faulting (a) fold mountain (b) residual mountain (c) block mountain (d) volcanic mountain
Another name for “mountain of accumulation” is (a) residual mountain (b) fold mountain (c) volcanic mountain (d) block mountain
Mountain Manodnock in USA is an example of (a) fold mountain (b) block mountain (c) volcanic mountain (d) residual mountain
All are physical objects except (a) road (b) mountain (c) river

Geography Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.C 3.B 4.C 5.C 6.C 7.C 8.C 9.A

10.A 11.A 12.C 13.B 14.B 15.C 16.A 17.B

18.C 19.C 20.A 21.A 22.B 23.B 24.B 25.A

26.A 27.C 28.C 29.C 30.C 31.B 32.B 33.A

34.C 35.B 36.A 37.B 38.B 39.C 40.B 41.B

42.C 43.B 44.C 45.A 46.C 47.C 48.C 49.D

50.C

OJECTIVES= 50÷2 = 25 marks

SECTION B: THEORY

( ANSWER 7 QUESTIONS)

7 X 5 = 35 marks

Volcanic and residual mountains are also called……… and………….
Mention two examples of a volcanic mountain.
1. Give four importance of mountains to man.
1. What is a highland?
1. Give an example of a highland.
1. State two uses of GIS
1. Mention five physical features in your environment
1. Define Geography.
1. What is the density of sial and sima?
1. A major mineral found in the mantle is called _____.
1. State two characteristics of the crust.
1. Describe the core of the earth.
1. State two differences between longitude and latitude.
1. List five important lines of latitude.
1. Mention two uses of lines of latitude and longitude.
1. State four effects of earth revolution.
1. Explain the term earth rotation.
1. Mention three effects of the earth rotation.
1. What is solar system? List the 9 planets in order of their distance from the sun.
1. State three characteristics of the planet Earth.

SS1 Government Examination Question For First Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

GOVERNMENT

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

The study of government helps us to —————-a) Know our rights b) evade tax ( c) disobey government
The THEORY of a primitive society was initiated by ______ a) Nelson Mandela (b) Thomas Hobbes (c) Nnamdi Azikiwe
The fourth organ of government is the ___________ a) High court b) electoral commission c) none of the above
The absence of government in a state leads to _______ a) Peaceful existence b) anarchy c) communism
One basic principle of government is _________ a) State and nation b) authority c) separation of power
Which of these is not a feature of government? a) Personnel (b) Revenue (c) legislature
The organ of government responsible for law making is the ____ (a) Executive (b) judiciary (c) legislature
One major function of government is _____ a) Law making (b) road maintenance c) electioneering
The knowledge of government helps us to have the spirit of ____a) Hooliganism (b) patriotism (c) atheism
The ultimate aim of government is to make us___a) thugs b) political scientists c) rebel leaders
The right of a state to make and enforce her own laws is called____(a) Power (b) authority (c) sovereignty
People united by common ties as a result of common culture, origin and descent are called a ____ (a) state (b) country (c) nation
The concept also referred to as Authoritarianism is known as__ (a) totalitarianism (b) socialism (c) aristocracy
A component of political culture which seeks to evaluate governments performance is known as ____ orientation (a) affective (b) evaluative (c) cognitive
One major determinant of political culture is ____ (a) ethnicity (b) political instability (c) all of the above
Power is the ability to _________a) control others (b) fight others (c) work
——- is a form of power (a) Military (b) Democracy c) Oligarchy
One source of power is (a) Election (b) police (c) high court
Charismatic power is based on a leaders ___( a) smartness (b) stubbornness (c) personal qualities
Which is not a source of authority? (a) Legal ( b) Charismatic (c) Traditional
The concept of democracy originated in ____(a) Britain (b) France (c) Greece
Which of these is not a characteristic of sovereignty (a) Permanence b) Indivisibility c) Incapability
Legitimacy can be determined by which of the following? a) Common symbols (b) Equal rights c) Common heritage
A government is considered to be legitimate if it __(a) wins an election (b) becomes autocratic (c) has no good plans
A form of sovereignty derived through force is called ____ sovereignty (a) de-facto (b) de-jure (c) legal
The process of acquiring knowledge about the political system is termed(a) Political culture (b) political socialization (c) political mobilization
The following are agents of political socialization except _____(a) mass protest b) peer group c) political party
The agent of political socialization that is responsible for entertaining the masses is called (a) religious group (b) peer group (c) mass media
_____ is regarded as the primary agent of socialization (a) The Family (b) The Community (c) The School
The most distinguishing characteristic of a state is (a) Government (b) Sovereignty (c) Territory
Which of these is not a feature of feudalism? a) Land b) Serf c) Proletariat
The right to influence the activities of others is called ________ a) Legitimacy (b) power (c) sovereignty
Power derived from the laws of the land is called __________ power a) Political (b) economic c) traditional
An economic arrangement where land is collectively owned is called _____a) Feudalism (b) communalism (c) socialism
The collapse of feudalism is attributed to the rise of _________ a) Fascism (b) capitalism (c) socialism
An ideology which promotes the control of major means of production by the state is___(a) communalism (b) socialism (c) capitalism
The theory of socialism was initiated by____ (a) Thomas Hobbes (b) Karl Marx (c) Jean Bodin
A state which has power to make its own laws and enforce them has___(a) Power (b) legitimacy (c) sovereignty
The lowest class of people in a capitalist state are the ___________(a) Bourgeoisie (b) proletariat (c) peasants
The highest stage of socialism is _______ (a) Capitalism (b) communalism (c) communism

SECTION B: THEORY

1a. Outline five features of a Socialist state.

1b. Explain the concept of capitalism.

2a. Describe the functions of the organs of government.

2b. Why is government necessary in a state?

3a. State five functions of government.

3b. How can the government maintain law and order.

4a. Explain the component of political culture.

4b. Outline five characteristics of a state.

5a. Define authority?

5b. What is the difference between power and authority?

6a. Explain four factors that affect legitimacy.

6b. Explain the two types of democracy.

Government Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.A 2.B 3.C 4.B 5.A 6.C 7.C 8.A 9.B

10.B 11.C 12.C 13.A 14.B 15.C 16.A 17.A

18.A 19.B 20.A 21.C 22.C 23.C 24.C 25.A

26.B 27.A 28.C 29.A 30.A 31.C 32.B 33.C

34.B 35.B 36.A 37.B 38.C 39.C 40.C

SS1 ICT Examination Question For First Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

INFORMATION COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY (I.C.T)

SECTION A

Instruction: Answer all question in this section

ATTEMPT ALL THE QUESTIONS

PART A OBJECTIVES

AI means………….A. artefact intelligence B. artificial intellect C. artificial intelligence D. attitude intelligence.
Which of the generation of computer was between 1975 and 1982? A. First B. Second C. Fifth D. Fourth
Which of the generation of computer used vacuum tube? A. First B. Second C. Fifth D. Fourth
Which of the generation of computers used VLSIC? A. First B. Second C. Fifth D. Fourth
Which of the generation of computers begins Non Procedural programming? A. First B. Second C. Fifth D. Fourth
What was the capacity of first computer? A. 1 bit B. 4 bit C. 8 Kilobyte D. 64 Kilobyte
Which company developed the first commercial computer? A. Zuse B. Apple C. IBM D. Microsoft
First generation computers used which type of memory? A. ROM B. RAM C. Cache D. None of the above
Which language was developed by John Backus? A. FORTRAN B. BASIC C. COBOL D. Ada
The first computers were called _____________ because they used vacuum tubes for circuitry and magnetic drums for memory storage A. analog computers B. digital computers C. large-scale computers D. mainframe computers
What is the full form of CPU? A. Central Processing Unit B. Control Processing Unit C. Complex Processing Unit D. Central Programmable Unit
The term “algorithm” comes from which language? A. English B. Arabic C. Urdu D. Persian
In binary language, which of the following is not a numeral? A. 0 B. 1 C. 8
Which of the following is an ordered pair? A. (2, 4) B. {2, 4} C. 2+4 D. 2-4
In digital system, which of the following represents HIGH state? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
Which of the following is NOT an output device? A. Printer B. Plotter C. Monitor D. Keyboard
Magnetic disk was first used in ___________ computer A. First generation B. Second generation C. Fifth generation D. Fourth generation
How many classifications of computers do we have? A. 2 B. 4 C. 7 D. 3
The generation of Computer that uses AI is A. third B. second C. fifth D. first
……..is the smallest and the most popular class of computers. A. Micro B. Mini C. Super D. Mainframe.
What type of computer combines both features of digital and Analogue computers? A. micro B. hybrid C. digital D. super
Computers designed solely to solve a restricted class of problem is called A. general purpose B. special purpose C. digital D. analogue
In defining a computer, the following points should be noted except ____(a) It works under the control of stored instruction (b) It is radical in operation (c) it can accept data in a prescribed form (d) It supply the results as information in a specified form
A collection of components that work together to achieve a goal is known a ___ (a) Computer (b) System (c) Collector (d) Device
The parts of the computer system we can see with our eyes and touch with our hand is called the computer …………… (a) Software (b) Hardware (c) Hardwood (d) Hardcopy
The ability of the computer to hold data, instructions and information for future use is referred to as (a) Storage (b) Output (c) Input (d) Process
……………….. is a collection of computer programs that drives the hardware.(a) All Programs (b) System software / Applications (c) Firmware (d) Hardware
…………………….. consists of programs that instruct the computer to accomplish specific tasks for the user(a) Computer (b) Application software (c) System software (d) Network software
A computer is said to be capable of performing almost any task provided that the task can be reduced to a series of logical steps, this characteristics is known as……………….(a) Speed (b) Reliability (c) Versatility (d) Accuracy
The software that controls the basic internal operations of the computer is known as ………..(a) system software (b) application software (c) software (d) internal software
Palmtop of also known as __________ (a) web cam (b) Handheld (c) touch screen (d) Notebook.
_________ is a personal computer in a form intended for regular use at a single location, as opposed to a mobile, laptop or portable computer (a) Notebook (b) laptop (c) desktop (d) Handheld.
_______ company designed the ENIAC and the UNIVAC 1 (a) Eckert–Mauchly Computer Corporation (b) Eckert–Mauchly Corporation (c) Mauchly Computer Corporation (d) Eckerty Computer Corporation
Which of the following is a mobile input device? (a) Joystick (b) Smart card (c) optical mouse (d) touch screen
With which of the following devices will a pointing arrow appear on the screen when used? (a) web cam (b) modem (c) touch screen (d) mouse.
The device used to enter images and pictures into the computer is the (a) light pen (b) scanner (c) joystick (d) image pad.
_______is a pointing device composed of a lever that moves in multiple directions to navigate a cursor or other graphical objects on a computer screen. (a) Mouse (b) Joystick (c) Keyboard (d) Mic
Clicking, pointing and dragging are main functions of _____ (a) Keyboard (b) Joystick (c) Mouse (d) Light pen
Which of the following is Not a pointing device? (a) Mouse (b) Light pen (c) Joystick (d) Keyboard
keyboard is usually connected to __________(a) CPU (b) System Unit (c) Monitor (d) ALU

Computer Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.D 3.A 4.D 5.D 6.C 7.C 8.D 9.A

10.C 11.A 12.A 13.C 14.A 15.B 16.D 17.B

18.D 19.C 20.A 21.B 22.B 23.B 24.B 25.B

26.A 27.B 28.B 29.C 30.A 31.B 32.C 33.B

34.D 35.D 36.B 37.A 38.C 39.D 40.A

PART B THEORY

What is artificial intelligence, and what are its key components?
How has artificial intelligence been developed over the years?
What are some of the current applications of artificial intelligence?
What are some of the ethical concerns surrounding artificial intelligence?
What is the future of artificial intelligence?
What are the origins of computing and how did it evolve?
What are some of the key inventions in computing history?
How did computers become more powerful over time?
What impact have computers had on society?
How will computing continue to evolve in the future?
List the classifications of computers according to type.
Explain the difference between the classifications of computers according to type.
List the classifications of computers according to type.
Explain the difference between the classifications of computers according to type.
What is a digital computer?
What are the examples of digital computers?
What is a hybrid computer?
What are the advantages of digital computers?
What are the disadvantages of hybrid computers?
Give a comprehensive definition of a Computer
List the three basic operations of a computer.
State two broad classes of a computer system.
Define a computer system
Outline 5 parts of a computer system.
Output devices are the peripherals of the computer that transfer information from the computer to the user. Explain

SS1 Marketing Examination Question For First Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

MARKETING

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A

________sees the consumer or client as the central focus of all the activities of an organization (a) accounting concept (b) English concept (c) economic concept (d) marketing concept
One of the following is NOT a terms used in marketing (a) market (b) wants (c) exchange (d) storage
_____is providing a way to give your customer what he/she want (a) selling (b) buying (c) transportation (d) storage
_____ involves turning a raw product into something the consumer can use (a) promoting (b) financing (c) processing (d) market information
There are _____ importance of marketing in small business (a) 10 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 5
_____ Concept embodies a higher and more enlightened plan of marketing thought and practice. (a) the marketing (b) societal marketing (c) the selling (d) production
The history of marketing in Nigeria is discussed under how many sub heading (a) 10 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 5
The pre-colonial age is also known as the ______ (a) production era (b) simple department era (c) simple trade era (d) none of the above
What ruled the day under pre-colonial age (a) customers (b) commodities (c) exploration (d) trade
What replaced simple trade under the colonial era (a) production era (b) goods era (c) trade era (d) all of the above
In which Era in Nigeria, cowries and other forms of money were used (a) the pre-colonial era (b) the colonial era (c) post independence era (d) all of the above
Marketing is the reason why business exists. (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe
Business exist to address customer______ (a) product (b) sales (c) needs (d) goods
Who is the King in business (a) marketer (b) consumers (c) customers (d) producers
The key to building relationship in business is______ (a) love (b) satisfaction (c) commitment (d) trust
________ concept lay emphasis on marketing management with the twin goals of customers orientation and profitable sales volume (a) marketing (b) selling (c) product (d) production
The following are levels of relationship building with customers excepts ____(a) profit orientation (b) the product concept (c) the product concept (d) reactive marketing
In _______ marketing, the seller call customers to find out whether the product meets their expectation (a) partnership (b) accountable (c) proactive (d) basic
__________ is the process of communicating the value of a product or service to customers (a) advertising (b) selling (c) marketing (d) transaction
_______ are basic human requirements (a) want (b) product (c) demand (d) needs
When a product is bought, the buyer is not only buying the product but also benefits and satisfaction (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe
_____ goods are goods that are bought from retail stores (a) industrial (b) public (c) consumer (d) market
A tooth brush seller only offers the physical product and not the idea of improving the health of the teeth. (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe
________ products are products that are purchased without any planning or search effort (a) staple (b) impulse (c) convenience (d) emergency
__________ is anything that can be offered to a market that might satisfy a want or need (a) production (b) commodity (c) marketing (d) products
_____ in era, exploration and trade in resources was the focus of the economic activity (a) colonial era (b) the post independence era (c) pre-colonial era (d) all of the above
What era did replace the production era (a) simple trade (b) emergence of the marketing department era (c) production (d) None of the above
Customers are not the focus of our business endeavors (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe
_____ is the want for a specific product backed by an ability to pay (a) want (b) products (c) market (d) demand
The following are the goals of marketing system except (a) maximize life quality (b) maximize profit (c) maximize storage (d) maximize choice
In ___________a product or service is useless to your business if no one knows about it. (a) processing (b) transportation (c) promoting (d) selling
______ marketing is where sellers sell the product and convince customers to call if they have any questions (a) partnership (b) reactive (c) basic (d) accountable
________ goods also carry designations related to their durability (a) production (b) industrial (c) consumer (d) all of the above
A____________ is something that you can use or consume. (a) food (b) product (c) good (d) service
Services are intangible products (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe
How many conditions do businesses have to meet to create the right marketing mix (a) 4 (b) 10 (c) 3 (d) 5
Marketing mix is often synonymous with the_______(a) market (b) discontribution (c) 4Ps (d) PS
________ environment takes into account all factors that can influence an organization but are outside of their control (a) micro (b) economic (c) technological (d) macro
The following are what marketing do except (a) mobilization (b) managing distribution (c) production (d) promoting
Marketing environment is made up of all the factors and forces that influence marketing (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe
The 4Ps simply means putting the _______ (a) right price (b) right product (c) place (d) all of the above
The pre-colonial age was from ________to__________ (a0 1960-date (b) 1980-1960 (c) 100AD-1869 (d) 2010-2021
This means the act of obtaining a needed/wanted object by offering something in return (a) wants (b) market (c) products (d) exchange
The following are functions of marketing except_____(a) financing (b) buying (c) selling (d) needs
______ is the business of communicating with customers (a) place (b) price (c) product (d) promotion
The process of forming crowds, groups, association and organizations for the pursuit of collective goals is known as _____(a) managing distribution network (b) production of quality goods and services (c) mobilization of workforce (d) None of the above
______ is simply a combination of buyers and sellers (a) market (b) production (c) promoters (d) All of the above
An individual who buys products or services for personal use and not for manufacture or resale is a ________(a) customer (b) consumer (c) buyer (d) producer
_____ market are individuals and companies who purchase goods and services for some use other than personal consumption (a) organizational (b) consumers (c) commodity (d) All of the above
One of the following is NOT a characteristic of consumer market (a) psychographic (b) geographic (c) demographic (d) chronographic
One of the following is NOT among the 4Ps (a) price (b) promotion (c) provision (d) product
The way in which a product is delivered to meet the customer’s need is _____(a) selling concepts (b) new product concepts (c) distribution activities (d) advertising activities
Meeting customer expectation regarding the quality a product is ____(a) customer satisfaction (b) customer excellent (c) customer loyalty (d) customer value
The process of encouraging consumers to buy products at retails outlets is (a) advertising (b) publicity (c) distribution (d) merchandising
A product by an organization for use in carrying out a business is (a) an industrial product (b) a specialty product (c) a consumer product (d) a convenience product
A market that deals in soft drinks and cosmetics is a ____ (a) business market (b) consumer market (c) government market (d) reseller market
Marketing concepts means (a) buying and selling to customers (b) selling and distribution to customers (c) satisfying customers needs and wants (d) advertising and promotion to customers
The selling of goods in small units is normally performed by (a) distributors (b) wholesalers (c) retailers (d) brokers
An example of specialty goods is____(a) electronics (b) noodles (c) fruits (d) shoes
An element in the marketing mix is (a) propaganda (b) publicity (c) product (d) packaging

THEORY

(ANSWER THREE (3) QUESTIONS ONLY)

1(i) Explain Marketing

(ii) List and explain the four (4) elements of marketing mix

2(i) What is a market in marketing?

(ii) State four functions of marketing

3(i) What is a product?

(ii) Distinguish between product and production concepts

4(i) Differentiate between market plan and market research

(ii) State three (3) reasons for marketing research

Marketing Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.D 2.D 3.A 4.C 5.B 6.B 7.B 8.C 9.B

10.A 11.A 12.True 13.C 14.C 15.D 16.A 17.C

18.B 19.C 20.D 21.True 22.C 23.False 24.B 25.D

26.C 27.B 28.False 29.D 30.C 31.C 32.B 33.B

34.C 35.True 36.A 37.C 38.D 39.D 40.True41.D

42.C 43.D 44.D 45.D 46.C 47.A 48.B 49.A

50.D 51.C 52.C 53.A 54.A 55.A 56.B 57.C

58.C 59.B 60.C

SS1 Physics Examination Question For First Term

SSS 1 PHYSICS

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS TIME: 2 HRS 30 MIN

SECTION A: OBJECTIVES

Which of the following is NOT fundamental units? (a)L (b)kg (c)s (d)m
Which of the units of the following physical quantities are not derived ? (a) area (b)thrust (c)pressure (d)mass
Which of the following is not a fundamental S.I unit (a)metre (b)ampere (c)kelvin (d)radian
Which of the following is a fundamental unit? (a)newton (b)watt (c)joule (d)second
Which of the following statements about mass and weight are correct? i.Weight is the force of gravity on a body ii. The mass of a body is the quantity of matter in the body iii. The weight of a body is greatest at the equator iv. The mass of a body is greatest at the poles (a)I and ii only (b) I and iii only (c) ii and iv only (d) I and ii and iii only
Which of the following is a fundamental quantity? (a)heat capacity (b)electric current (c)torque (d)density
Which of the following is a fundamental quantity? (a)speed (b)density (c)length (d)impulse
Which of the following is a derived unit? (a)ampere (b)kilogram (c)second (d)ohms
_____ involves changes of position of a body with time (a)motion (b)friction (c)force (d)length
When a body moves to and fro about a fixed point is called _____ (a)translational motion (b)random motion (c)oscillatory motion (d)relative motion
When a body moves ziz-zag direction continuously so that they do not trace definite path (a)translational motion (b)random motion (c)oscillatory motion (d)relative motion
When a body travels in a circle or ellipse and rotates about an axis is called _____ (a)translational motion (b)random motion (c)oscillatory motion (d)rotational motion
Mass times acceleration is the formula of solving _____ (a)motion (b)area (c)volume (d)force
_____ oppose motion (a)friction (b)speed (c)gera (d)momentum
_____ is defined as a quantity that has magnitude but no direction (a)vector quantity (b)scalar quantity (c)force (d(momentum)
_____ is define as then quantity that has both magnitude and direction (a)vector quantity (b)scalar quantity (c)force (dmomentum)
_____ is referred to as point in which an object can be located or the place object is found (a)distance (b)displacement (c)position (d)mass
_____ is the gap between any two point (a. Distance (b. Speed (c. Volume (d. Time
_____ is the distance covered in a specific direction (a. Velocity (b. Viscosity (c. Displacement
The rate of change of distance moved in an unspecified direction on the tare of change of distance per unit time in a unspecified direction (a)speed (b)time (c)velocity (d)displacement
The rate of change of distance moved in a specified direction on the rate of change of displacement is called _____ (a. Velocity (b. Mass (c. Unit
_____ is defined as thee increasing rate of change of velocity (a)acceleration (b)speed (c)velocity (d)retardation
Decreasing rate of change of velocity is called _____(a. Dis-acceleration (b. Dis-unit (c. acceleration (d. atom
The mass of a substance per unit volume of the substance is called _____ (a)distance (b)density (c)velocity (d)displacement
_____ is defined as the product of force and perpendicular distance in the direction of applied force (a)work (b)energy (c)power (d)density
_____ is the ability to do work (a. energy (b. work (c. force (d. work-done
_____ is a stored energy i.e energy possessed by a body by virtue of its states (a)P.E (b)K.E (c)M.E (d)S.E
_____ is the energy possessed by a body by virtue of its motion (a. Potential (b. Kinetic (c. Electric
The rate of doing work or the rate of transfer of energy (a)energy (b)power (c)workdone (d)work
Watt is the S.I unit of _____ (a. Power (b. light (c. work (d. force
_____ convert mechanical energy to electrical energy (a)motor (b)generator (c)electric pressing (d)kettle
_____ convert electrical energy to mechanical energy (a. Iron (b. blender (c. water
_____ converts electrical energy to heat energy (a. Blender (b. Iron (c. food
_____ is the internal friction which exists between layers of the molecules of a fluid (liquid or gas) in motion. (a)viscosity (b)velocity (c)scalar quantity (d)vector quantity
Substance with low viscosity include the following except (a) water (b)kerosene (c)grease (d)petrol
Substance with high viscosity include the following except (a) syrup (b)ethanol (c)grease (d)glycerine

Underline the correct answer

37.Time is a _________ quantity (a) Scalar quantity (b) Vector quantity

38. Displacement is a _________ quantity (a) Scalar quantity (b) Vector quantity

39. Mass is a _________ quantity (a) Scalar quantity (b) Vector quantity

40. Distance is a _________ quantity (a) Scalar quantity (b) Vector quantity

41. This_____ consists of the following: mechanics, heat, optics, wave and sound, electricity and magnetism. (a) Modern physic (b) Classical physics (c) Physics

42. This______ covers the aspects of matter energy and their relations at atomic and sub-atomic levels. (a) Modern physic (b) Classical physics (c) Physics

43. The new system which has now gained universal acceptance is the systeme international d’units, usually called____(a) SI units (b) S.I. Units (c) Physics Units

44. ______ may be defined as the extent of space or distance extended. (a) Time (b) Mass (c) Length\

45. _____ are used to measure distances on solid objects where an ordinary metre rule cannot be applied directly. (a) micro meter screw gauge (b) Callipers (c) Meter rule

46. _____ is usually measured by comparing it with standard masses, using a balance. (a) Time (b) Mass (c) Length

47. _____ can also be used in measuring the volume of irregular shaped objects e.g. stone, with the aid of the displacement or eureka can. (a) micro meter screw gauge (b) Vernier Callipers (c) graduated cylinder

48. What is the Total reading on the scale shown below?

(a) 4.30 (b) 3.30 (c) 7.30

49. The acceleration that is directed towards the centre of the circular path is known as_______(a) centripetal acceleration (b) constant speed (c) changing or variable velocity

50. Circular motion has ____ characteristics (a) two (b) three (c) four

We have____ types of friction (a) two (b) three (c) four
A _______quantity is defined as a quantity that has magnitude only but no direction. (a) scalar (b) vector (c) direction
A ________ quantity is defined as a quantity that has both magnitude and direction. (a) scalar (b) vector (c) direction
________ is referred to as the point in which an object can be located or the place object is found. (a) Position (b) distances (c) direction
When the velocity of a moving body increases by equal amount in equal intervals of time, no matter how small the time intervals may be, it is said to move with_____(a) Velocity (b) uniformacceleration (c) Retardation
______ is defined as the decreasing rate of change of velocity. It is measured in m/s2.It is also known as deceleration or negative acceleration (a) Velocity (b) uniformacceleration (c) Retardation
A car moves from rest with an acceleration of 0.2mls². Find its velocity when it has moved a distance of 50m. (a) √20 m/s (b) √30 m/s (c) √50 m/s
A glass block of length 10cm width 8cm and thickness 2cm has a mass of 400g. Calculate the density of the glass. (a) 22500kgm³ (b) 25500kgm³ (c) 2500kgm³
Calculate the volume in m³ of a piece of wood of mass 500g and density 0.76 gcm-3 (a) 658cm³ (b) 758cm³ (c) 958cm³
Themass of a stone is 15g when completely immersed in water and 10g when completely immersed in liquid of relative density 2.0 . What is the mass of the stone in air? (a) 120g (b) 20g (c) 30g

Physics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.A 2.B 3.D 4.D 5.A 6.B 7.C 8.D 9.A

10.C 11.B 12.D 13.D 14.A 15.B 16.A 17.C

18.A 19.C 20.A 21.A 22.A 23.A 24.B 25.A

26.A 27.A 28.B 29.C 30.A 31.A 32.B 33.B

34.A 35.C 36.B 37.A 38.B 39.A 40.A 41.B

42.A 43.B 44.C 45.B 46.B 47.C 48.A 49.A

50.B 51.A 52.A 53.B 54.A 55.B 56.C 57.A 58.C 59.A 60.B

THEORY

ANSWER 5 QUESTIONS

1a. Define

Physics
Fundamental unit and quantities

1b. Derived unit and quantities

1c. List 5 fundamental quantity and unit

2a. List 5 derived quantity and unit

2b. What is the dimension of the derived quantity mentioned above

3a. List four types of motion and give an example each

3b. Mention 2 differences between mass and weight

3c. Mention 2 advantages and 2 disadvantages of friction

4a. What is scalar quantity and vector quantity

4b. Mention 2 examples of scalar quantity

4c. Mention 2 examples of vector quantity

4d. Draw the cardinal points and their directions

5a. Write the formula

Speed
Velocity
Displacement
Distance
Density

5b. A man moves from 10steps up to 100 staircase and stepping down to stand at the 85^th steps . calculate (a) the position (b) distance (c) displcament

5c. A train moves with a speed of 54km/h for one quarter time. Find the distance travelled by the train

6a. Mention 5 types of energy

6b. Define renewable energy

6c. Define non – renewable energy

6d. Mention 3 conversion of energy with one example each

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