SS2 Examination Questions For Third Term

3rd term Secondary School Exam Questions and answers. Year 11/SS2 Examination Questions for third term subjects-Edudelight Examination

Agricultural Science SS2 Examination Questions For Third Term

      SENIOR CLASS TWO ( S.S.S. 2)

AGRICULTURAL – SCIENCE  1^ST – 3^RD TERM EXAM

SECTION A: OBJECTIVES

1. Soil is the ………….. layer of the earth crust   (a).  contre   (b).  uppermost    (c).  deepest
2. ………… is one of the factors of soil formation  (a). gloves   (b). climate   (c).  shelter  
3. Temperature is an element under …………  (a).  pressure     (b).    climated    (c).   climate
4. Igneous, Sedimentary and Metamorphic are examples of ……………….  (a). rocks   (b). sands  (c).  crops
5. ……….. Speeds up the processes in the soil formation (a). Organs (b).  Living organisms   (c).  stems  
6. The surveying equipment used for taking bearings and angular distances is _____       (a) tape (b) ranging pole (c) offset staff (d) prismatic compass
7. The instrument used for measuring horizontal and vertical angles for planes is  _____ (a) theodolite (b) pins (c) beacon (d) tape
8. Which of these is not a factor influencing the siting of farmstead (a) topography (b) soil type (c) accessibility (d) weather
9. Artificial application of water to the farmland is _____ (a) irrigation (b) wetting (c) drainage (d) harvesting
10. Excess water is conducted away from the soil through ____ (a) irrigation  (b) wetting (c) drainage (d) planting
11. The type of irrigation which can be done on a gentle slope is ____ (a) surface irrigation (b) subsurface irrigation (c) overhead irrigation (d) Sprinkler
12. The machine which is used to hatch eggs is ____ (a) tractor (b) incubator (c) milking machine (d) plough
13. The tool used in transplanting is ______ (a) cutlass (b) hoe (c) hand trowel (d) tractor
14. The following are pre planting activities except (a) ploughing (b) bush clearing  (c) harrowing (d) thinning
15. The following are types of manure except (a) green manure (b) farm yard manure (c) NPK (d) compost
16. The following are methods of fertilizer application except (a) broadcasting (b) ring method (c) Top dressing (d) Eroding
17. The indiscriminate removal of trees is called ____(a) afforestation (b) deforestation (c) Taungya farming (d) weeding
18. The following are forest trees except ____. A. iroko B. obeche C. hibiscus D. ebony
19. The process of cutting only matured trees in a forest is called ______. A. selective exploitation B. selective exploration C. taungya D. afforestation
20. Process of establishing a forest plantation is called ____. A. afforestation B. deforestation C. taungya D. weeding
21. The best soil for Agriculture is _____. A. loamy soil B. sandy soil C. clay soil D. silt soil
22. The following are ornamental trees except _____. A. frangi poni B.balsam C. royal palm D. ixora
23. Which of the following is not an ornamental shrubs? A. allamenda B.crotons C. hibiscus D.casuarinas
24. The following are ornamental flowers except ____. A.justicia B. carnalityC. crotalaria D. balsam
25. The following are legumes except ______. A. centro B. stylo C. calapo D. panicum maximum
26. ______ are cultivated purposedly for feeding animals. A. arable crops B. ornamental crops C. forage crops D. farm trees
27. The following are pathogens except _____. A. viruses B. bacteria C. fungi D. algae
28. Maize rust is caused by ______. A. bacteria B. fungi C. virus D. nematodes
29. Rosette disease of groundnut is caused by ____. A. fungus B. virus C. bacteria D. nematodes
30. Cocoa blackpod disease is caused by ______. A. virus B. bacteria C. fungi D. nematodes
31. Root knoll of tomato is caused by ______. A. nematode B. fungus C. bacteria D.virus
32.  The following are liming materials except (a) limestone (b) Urea (c) quicklime (d) slaked lime
33. Nutrients are lost through the following means except (a) crop removal (b) Erosion (c) leaching (d) mulching
34. The following are climate factors except (a) soil types (b) humidity (c) temperature (d) light
35. Which of the following is not an edaphic factor (a) soil PH (b) soil fertility (c) soil water (d) topography
36. The following are types of erosion except ____ (a) splash (b) rill (c) sheet (d) mulch
37. The washing away of soil nutrients down beyond the reach of the root is ___  (a) erosion (b) leaching (c) mulching (d) staking
38. High humidity is responsible for ____ (a) dryness (b) water logging (c) rainfall (d) erosion
39. Crop rotation is often used in maintaining soil fertility because (a)all crops grown, add nutrients to the soil (b)some of the crops fix nitrogen in the soil (c)crops grown are ploughed into the soil  (d)the crops are rotated on different farmlands
40. Lost soil nutrients can be replenished by the following methods except (a)organic manuring (b)fertilizer application (c)continuous grazing (d)cover cropping
41. Irrigation can be described as the (a)reduction of soil water (b)spraying of mineral on plants (c)application of dissolved fertilizers to the soil (d)application of water to the soil
42. All these are uses of ornamental plants except___(a) sources of  food (b) nitrogen fixation (c) reduction of noise (d) sources of water
43. The type of soil used for cultivating ornamental plants is____(a) clay soil (b) sandy soil (c) loamy soil (d) All of the above
44. An area of land covered with forage crops is referred to as_____ (a) forest (b) pasture (c) herbage (d) grassland
45. One of these is the botanical name of elephant grass? (a) Archis hypogeal (b) Pennisetum purpureum (c) Xanthomona spp (d) Axonopus Compressus
46. A natural pasture is referred to as____(a) savannah area (b) arid zone (c) range land (d) arable land
47. One of these is not an economic tree (a) walnut (b) mahogany (c) obeche (d) apple
48. One of these does not encourage formation of forest (a) bush burning (b) afforestation (c) selective exploitation (d) Taungya system
49. The division of range of land into section with fence is called____(a) paddocking (b) fencing (c) reseeding (d) restocking
50. Animals that have four stomach chamber are called_____(a) omnivorous (b) non-omnivorous (c) ruminants (d) oviparous animals
51. Leguminous crops fix___  to the soil (a) calcium (b) nitrogen (c) phosphorus (d) Iodine
52. An organism capable of causing damage to another organism is called___ (a) pest (b) disease (c) infection (d) pathogen
53. One of these is not a non-insect pest (a) monkey (b) grasshopper (c) beetle (d) weevil
54. All these are fibre crops except (a) hemp (b) sisal (c) cotton  (d) rubber
55. Which of the following is not a physical method of weed control? A. hand pulling  B. mulching C. hoeing D. slashing
56. Which of the following is not a cultural weed control methods A. flooding B. burning  C. mulching D. hoeing
57.  The unit of inheritance is ______ A. chromosomes B. eggs C. genes D. gametes
58. The fusion of male and female gamate result in ____ A. embryo B. genes C. gamates  D. zygote
59. The character which express itself in the presence of the other is said to be ____  A. dominant B. recessive C. sexual D. asexual
60. The higher the price, the ____ the quantity demanded A. higher B. lower C. up D. down

SSS 2 Agricultural Science Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.B      2.B      3.C      4.A      5.B  

6.D      7.A      8.D      9.A      10.C   

11.A    12.B    13.B    14.D    15.B

16.D    17.B    18.C    19.A    20.A   

21.A    22.D    23.D    24.D    25.D

26.C    27.D    28.B    29.B    30.C   

31.A    32.B   33.D    34.A    35.C   

36.A    37.A    38.D    39.B    40.C

41.D    42.D    43.C    44.B    45.B

46.C    47.D    48.A    49.A    50.C

51.B    52.A    53.A    54.C    55.B

56.D    57.C    58.D    59.A    60.A

THEORY

1a. Describe Weeds

1b. Define Demand , Define Supply, state law

1c. What is a farm record? List types of farm record

2a. State 3 methods of weed control and explain them

2b.  What is a forest?

2c. List 3 factors affecting Demand

3a. List five common forest trees

3b. List two purpose of keeping farm records

3c. State and explain the two systems of drainage

4a. List 2 types of plant nutrients and explain

4b. What is crop improvement?

1. 4c. Define the following
2. Farm surveying
3. irrigation?
4. Surveying
5. Carbon cycle
6. Ornamental plants
7. Pastures 

5a. Define Deforestation & state 4 causes

5b. Differentiate between crop pests and diseases

5c.Explain the following term – Gene , Chromosome,  Trait , Mutation, Hybridization, and Genotype

6a. List 2 aims of crop improvement

6b. Give 3 examples each of macro and micro nutrients

6c. Complete this table

Quantity of fertilizer (bags)	0	4	8	12	16	20	24	28	32	36
Maize yield (Kg)	8	24	48	80	120	150	170	180	180	170
Marginal product (Kg)
Average product (Kg)

7.

Prepare a profit and loss account for Segun Farms for the year which ended 31/12/17, using the following data;

1. Cost of feed                                   N500
2. Cost of drugs                                 N 200
3. Sales of Eggs                                 N 2000
4. Eggs for domestic use                   N 200
5. Loss due to mortality                    N 300
6. Value of stick left                         N 600
7. Farm wages                                  N 400
8. Sales of spent layers                     N 1000
9. Transportation cost                       N 300
10. Depreciation                                 N 200
11. Electricity bill                                N 300
12. Net profit                                      N 1600

SOLUTION

SEGUN FARMS PROFIT AND LOSS ACCOUNT AS AT 31^ST DECEMBER, 2017

DEBIT			CREDIT
S/N	ITEMS	₦	S/N	ITEMS	₦
1	Cost of feed	500	1	Sales of spent layers	2000
2	Cost of drugs	200	2	Eggs for domestic use	200
3	Loss due to mortality	300	3	Value of stick left	600
4	Farm wages	400	4	Sales of spent layers	1000
5	Transportation cost	300
6	Depreciation	200
7	Electricity bill	300
8	Net profit	1600
	Grand Total	3800		Grand Total	3800

Biology SS2 Examination Question For Third Term

SENIOR CLASS TWO ( S.S.S. 2)

BIOLOGY   1^ST – 3^RD TERM EXAM

SECTION A: OBJECTIVES

1. A plant which grows on another plant without apparent harm to the host plant is called___ A. a parasite B. an epiphyte  C. a saprophyte D. a predator
2. Given the equation: 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 {Under sunlight & Chlorophyll) The process represented by the above equation is_____ A. proteinsynthesis B. respiration C. photosynthesis D. transpiration
3. Given the equation: 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 {Under sunlight & Chlorophyll) The oxygen given off during the above process is derived from__ A. sunlight B. chlorophyll  C. carbon dioxide D. water
4. When protein are broken down they provide ____A. oxygen B. carbonhydrate C. energy D. amino-acid
5. The movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to one of lower concentration is_________A. Diffusion B. Transpiration  C. Osmosis D. Translocation
6. The carrier of the hereditary character in plants and animal is the____ A. Cell B. Nucleus C. Chromosome D. Chloroplast
7. Grasses grasshopper lizard snakes hawks. In the food chain, the organism which are the least in number are____(a) grasses B. hawks  C. lizards D. snakes
8. Magnesium is utilized in the formation of__ A. ATP B. Glucose  C. Amino acids D. Chlorophyll
9. Which of the following spreads malaria in Nigeria?
   1. Anopheles mosquito B. Culex mosquito C. Aedes mosquito D. Tsetse fly
10. The vacuole of a plant cell is____ A. a large empty space B. smaller than that of animal cell  C. surrounded by a membrane D. an ordinary vacuum
11. What is the function of the contractile vacuole in paramecium?  A. Produces enzymes B. Gets rid of excreta  C. Stores and digest food D. Gets rid of excess water
12. Spirogyra reproduces vegetatively by__ A. spore production B. fragmentation  C.multiple fission D. budding
13. In a bakery, yeast is added to flour to make bread rise. This is possible because yeast produces A. alcohol B. oxygen C. carbon dioxide D. energy
14. Which of the following statements is NOT true of menstruation?  A. It occurs monthly  B. The discharge contains amniotic fluid C. Its signifies no conception D. It involves the lining of uterus
15. Soil is said to be fertile if__ A. it can supply usable nutrients to plants B. it is black  C. the oxygen content is very high  D. artificial manure is added to it
16. Some of the major elements required by plants are_____ a.Potassium, nitrogen, phosphorus, sodium, calcium b.Nitrogen, phosphorus, molybdenum, sodium, calcium c. Potassium, phosphorus, molybdenum, sodium, calcium
17. Which of these combinations is common to plant and animal cells?  A. Centriole, middle lamella, golgi bodies, mitrochondrion  B. Cytoplasm, sap, vacuole, starch grains, leucoplasts C. Plasma membranes, chromosomes, mitochondria, lysosomes.  D. Nucleus, nucleolus, cellulose cell wall, endoplasmic reticulum
18. Which of the following tissue are made up of dead cells? (a) Meristematic B. Xylem vessels.  C. Cambium D. Mesophyll
19. If a farmer left his land uncultivated for five years before returning to it, he must be practicing___A. modern agriculture B. strip cropping  C. contour ridging  D. the bush fallow system
20. In man, spermatozoa are never found in the? A. testis B. urethra C. epididymis D. prostrate glands
21. Hydra feeds on___aquatic organisms (a) small (b) big (c) large
22. _____ captures its food through its structure called nematocysts found on its tentacles (a) digestive (b) canal (c) hydra
23. ____ is a parasitic worm which has no alimentary canal (a) tadpole (b) tapeworm (c) (c) hydra
24. _____ has a simple alimentary canal with one opening (a) Planaria (b) Pharynx (c) cavity
25. The alimentary canals of insects consist of ___major parts (a) 4 (b)3 (c) 2
26. Insects such as grasshoppers feed on____(a) sand (b) soil (c) leaves
27. The broken down into simple, soluble and diffusible substances through some chemical and mechanical processes is called__(a) absorption (b) ingestion (c) digestion
28. Digested food  absorbed into the body fluids and assimilated while the undigested food is removed (egested) (a) True (b) False (c) IDK
29. All holozoic animals have structures for obtaining their food. (a) false (b) true (c) IDK
30. The wall of the esophagus is muscular and it contracts and relaxes to push each bolus of food downward, this process is called____(a) peristalsis (b) hydra (c) Pepsinogen
31. The first part of the small intestine is___ (a) liver (b) duodenum (c) enzymes
32. The liver produces bile, which is stored in the gall bladder (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe
33. ___ is a greenish liquid that emulsifies fat, which does not contain digestive enzymes (a) liver (b) duodenum (c) Bile
34. The pancreatic juice contains____important enzymes (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2
35. Sucrase – converts sucrose___(a) glucose+gluclose  (b) glucose + fructose (c) glucose + galactose
36. Chemical digestion of starch starts in the ……A. intestine B. Mouth C. stomach D. pancreas
37. The enzyme involved in the coagulation of milk into thick curds is …A. ptyalin B. pepsin  C. Rennin/Rennet D. Lipase
38. The end product of starch digestion is …….. A. glucose B. maltose C. glycogen  D. amino acids
39. The process by which digested food is absorbed into the body cells is called  _A. ingestion B. egestion C. assimilation  D. digestion
40. ___ system is the movement of metabolic materials from various parts of an organism where they are produced and transported to other parts (b) excretory (b) transport (c) digestive
41. ____ is a fluid with extra lymphocytes (W.B.C with no red blood cells present). (a) blood (b) cytoplasm (c) Lymph
42. The blood cells (corpuscles); which are ____(a) solid (b) liquid (c) broad
43. ___ Helps to transport oxygen from lungs to the body cells through its pigment (haemoglobin) (a) red blood cell (b) white blood cells (c) blood platelets
44. ____ Help to defend the body against diseases by engulfing and intruding pathogens (bacteria and virus) (a) red blood cell (b) white blood cells (c) blood platelets
45. lymphatic system which ingest bacteria, viruses and dead cells to prevent diseases in a process called___(a) lymphocytes (b) phagocytosis (c) cells
46. The following metabolic materials are transported from body cells to the skin and kidney A. sugar B. hormones C. excess salt D. protein
47. The transport medium which plays active roles in the defense and metabolism of lipids is … A. cytoplasm B. lymph C. blood D. platelets
48. The following animals except one has open circulatory system A. goat B. house fly C. snail D. grasshopper
49. One of the following has nucleus__A. red blood cell B. white blood cells C. platelets D. hydra
50. ____circulatory system involves the blood vessel called arteries which divides capillaries which later join up with other vessels called veins (a) open (b) close (c) single
51. The reproduction structural part of the flower include the following except A. corolla B. androecium C. gynoecium D. stigma
52.  A flower having both male and female flowers on the same plant is referred to as  A. monoecious flower  B. dioecious flower C. hypogynous flower D. axillary flower.
53. An example of flower possessing half inferior ovary is A. hibiscus B. sun flower C. rose flower D. flamboyant
54. Which of these is not condition for cross pollination A. protandry B. protogyny C. homogamy D. self incompatibility
55. The following are entomophilous flowers except A. hibiscus B. crotolaria C. maize flower D. pride of Barbados
56. Courtship behaviours in animals include the following except A. display B. migration C. pairing D. adaptation
57. A fruit that develops from the ovary and other floral parts is called a __________ fruit A. true B. aggregate C. acccesory D. simple
58. A fruit that develops from an inflorescence is known as a _____________ fruit A. aggregate B. simple C. composite D. true
59. Food storage results in A. stability of price B. Natural disaster C. high natality rate D. overpopulation
60. These are methods of storing and preserving food except A. Silos B.  barns C.  refrigeration D. Marketing.
61. Potassium, nitrogen, iron , sodium, calcium

SSS 2 Biology Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.B       2.C       3.D       4.D       5.A  

6.C       7.B       8.D       9.A       10.C    

11.D     12.B     13.C     14.B     15.A

16.A     17.C     18.B     19.D     20.D    

21.A     22.C     23.B     24.A     25.B

26.C     27.C     28.A     29.B     30.A    

31.B     32.A     33.C     34.B     35.B    

36.B     37.C     38.A     39.A     40.B

41.C     42.A     43.A     44.B     45.B

46.B     47.C     48.C     49.B     50.B

51.D     52.A     53.B     54.D     55.C

56.D     57.C     58.C     59.C     60.D

THEORY

ANSWER ANY FOUR QUESTIONS

1a. State functions of the skeleton

1b.(i) What is a joint? (ii) distinguish between moveable and immoveable joints

2a. Mention five organisms and their respiratory surfaces or organs

2b. Differentiate between Mitosis and Meiosis

2b. What do you understand by reproductive health?

3a. Differentiate between Glycolysis and Crab’s cycle

3b. Mention five organisms and name their excretory products

4a. Draw a well-labelled diagram of a ball and socket joint.

4b. State five characteristics of a typical vertebrae

5a. Draw a well-labelled diagram of a young dicotyledonous stem

5b. State six symptoms of sexually transmitted infection

THEORY- Answer only 3

1a. Mention 3 circulatory system in animals,explain 1

1b. State 3 Differences between artery and vein

2a. Draw a well labelled diagram of  the heart

2b.Why is blood a tissue? And  Differentiate between blood and lymph.

3a. State the 3 types of blood cell and explain 2

3b. State five functions of blood.

4a. What is transport system? And State the needs for transport system.

4b. What is an enzyme? And State the various feeding habits animals

5a Describe the male reproductive parts of a flowering plant.

5bExplain the different types of ovary.

6a.What is pollination

6b.Explain what you understand by self and cross pollination.

7a.What are the features of self and cross pollination?

7b.State five characteristics of entomophilous and anaemophilous flowers.

8a.What are the agents of pollination?

8b.Differentiate between a fruit and a seed

9a.With the aid of a labelled diagram, differentiate between a drupe and a berry.

9b.What is a freshwater habitat?

10. State five characteristics of freshwater habitats

Chemistry SS2 Examination Questions For Third Term

SENIOR CLASS TWO ( S.S.S. 2)

CHEMISTRY  – SCIENCE  1^ST – 3^RD TERM EXAM

SECTION A: OBJECTIVES

1. The energy change which accompanies the addition of an electron to an isolated gaseous atom is__ (A) Electro affinity  B. Electronegativity  C. bond energy C. Ionization energy
2. Which of the following arrangement is in order of increasing metallic property? (A) Na < Li < K  (B). Li < Na < K  (C). K < Li < Na  (D). K < Na < Li \
3. When an element ₂₀A combines with ₈Y, a. a covalent compound, AY is formed b. a covalent compound, AY₂ is formed c. an ionic compound, AY is formed d. an ionic compound, A₂Y is formed
4. The number of atoms in one molecule of a substance is equal to the_____ (A) Oxidation number  B. atomic number  C. mass number  D. Avogadro’s number.
5. What is the value of ‘n’ in the following equation?

Cr₂O₇^2-  +    14H⁺     +   n e^–      ——-> 2Cr³⁺    +      7H₂O  (A) 2  B. 3  C. 7  D. 6

6. What mass of copper would be formed when a current of 10.0A is passed through a solution of CuSO₄ for 1 hour? ( Cu = 63.5, 1F = 96500C ) (A). 5.9g  B. 11.8g  C.  23.7g   D. 47.3g

7. The atomic radii of metals are usually.

A. Less than their ionic radii

B. Greater than their ionic radii

C. Equal to their ionic radii

D. Less than those of non-metals in the same period.

8. Which of the following elements is a metalloid?

A. Silicon  B. Potassun  C. Sodium  D. Oxygen

Consider the reaction represented by the following equation;

x CH₃OH + y O₂ ——> 2CO₂    +      z H₂O

9. The value of x ,y and z respectively are

A. 2,3 and 4  B. 2,4 and 3  C. 1,2 and 3  D. 1,3,and 5

10. The valence elections of the element ₁₂ Mg are in the ___(A). 1 S Orbital  B. 3  S Orbital   C. 2  P_x Orbital D. 2 P_y Orbital

11. What is the function of Sulphur(IV) oxide in the reaction represented by the following equations?

SO_2(g)   +     2H₂S_(g)  ——–>  3S_(s))  +  2H₂O_(l)

1. bleaching agent  B. dehydrating agent  C. oxidizing agent  D. precipitant

12. How many electrons are removed from Cr²⁺ when it is oxidized to CrO₄^2-? (A) 10  B. 8  C. 2  D. 4

13. Which of the following properties increases down a group in the periodic table? (A) electron affinity  B. electronegativity  C. ionization energy  D. atomic radius

14. Given that the electronic configuration of the element X is 1S² 2S² 2P⁶ 3S² 3P⁴ , it can be deduced that X.  (A) belongs to period 4 in the periodic table (B) contains three unpaired electrons in the ground state (C)  belongs to group 6 in the periodic table  (D) has atomic number 27

15. Which of the following pH values indicates that a solution is a strong base? A 1.0  B 5.0  C. 7.5  D 13.0

16. Substances which absorbs moisture from the atmosphere without dissolving in it is said to be

hygroscopic  B. anhydrous  C. insoluble  D. efflorescent

17. Which of the following atoms contains the highest number of electrons in the outermost shell? A. ₁₀Ne  B. ₈O   C. ₁₅P  D. ₁₉K

18. Calcium atom ionizes by______

A. Sharing two electrons  B. Gaining two protons

C. Losing two electrons  D. Gaining two electrons

19. Elements which belong to the same group in the periodic table are characterized by

A. Difference of + 1 in the oxidation numbers of successive members

B. Difference of 14 atomic mass units between successive members

C. Presence of the same numbers of electrons shells in the respective atoms.

D. Presence of the same number of outer most electrons in the respective atoms

20. The following are alkali excepts__A. Sodium    B. Potassium  C. Lithium   D. Calcium

21. S- block elements of the periodic table are made up of ___ A. Group 1, 2, and 3  B. Group 1 C. Group 1 and 2   D Group 2 and 3

22. Alkaline – earth metals are elements in group – A. 7  B. 2  C. 3  D. 1

H⁺ _(aq)+ OH _{(aq) ——>} H₂O_(l)

23. The reaction represented above is _____. (A) Neutralization  B. Combustion  C. Formation of water  D. Ionization  

24. Which of the following arrangement is in order of increasing ionization energy? (A) Al, Si, P, S  (B). P, Si, S, Al  (C). Si, Al, S, P (D). S, P, Si, Al. 

25. Faraday’s first law of electrolysis can be expressed mathematically as___A. Q = It   B.  Q  It  C. m      D.  m  It  

26. What is the value of -14⁰C on the Kelvin temperature scale? A. 287K   B. 359K  C. 273K  D.  259K

27. What is the molecular formula of the compound with empirical formula, CH₂O and vapour density of 90? ( H = 1, C = 12, O = 16)  A. C₄H₈O₂   B. C₄H₈O₃  C.  C₆H₁₂O₆   D. C₆H₁₀O₅

28. …… is an instrument for measuring volumes.(a) beaker (b) measuring cylinder (c)test tube (d)rack

29. Chemistry is concerned with the study of …….. (a) matter (b)mood (c) emotions (d)force

30. The rust racketing of iron is a ……. change. (a) physical rack (b) chemical (c) biological (d) sociological rack

31. _______ is the minimum amount of energy of reactants for a chemical reactions to take place (a) activation energy (b) solar energy (c) heat energy (d) chemical energy

32. _______ theory states that for a chemical reaction to occur, the reacting paricles must collide with one another (a) kinetic (b) collision (c) chemical (d) activation

33. Which of these methods is not used to determine the rate of reaction? (a) change in amount of precipitate formed (b) change in intensity of colour (c) change in PH values (d) change in total gas pressure

34. Reactions are generally faster at higher temperature because the _____ (a) activation energy increases (b) energy of the products is lowered (c) energy if the reactants decreases (d) number of effective collision increases

35. Which of the following statements about chemical reactions is not correct? The (a) higher the activation energy, the faster the reaction (b) lower the reaction energy, the faster the reaction (c) higher the temperature, the faster the reaction (d) addition of a catalyst lower the activation energy

36. The reaction of a fixed mass of iron filiungs with 0.50 mol dm^-3   hydrochloric acid can be made to proceed faster by _____ (a) adding 0.50 mol dm^-3  NaOH (b) using 0.25 mol dm^-3 acid instead (c) increasing the volume of acid used (d) adding some concentrated HCl  

37. Which of the following best explains the increase in the rate of a chemical reaction as the temperature rises? (a) a lower proportion of the molecules has the necessary minimum energy to react (b) the bonds in the reacting molecules are more readily broken (c) the collision frequency of the molecules increases (d) the molecules collision become more violent

38. Which of the following is true of a catalyst? (i) it offers the activation energy of a reaction (ii) it is effective in a reaction but cannot initiate a reaction (iii) it affects the equilibrium of a reversible reaction (iv) it affects the overall reaction (a) I and ii only (b) I, ii and iii only (c) ii and iii only (d) ii, iii and iv only

39. The enthalpy’s change for an endothermic reaction is ____ (a) positive (b) negative (c) zero (d) none of the above

40 A chemical reaction in which heat is given to the surrounding is known as ____ (a) exothermic reaction (b) endothermic reaction (c) chemical reaction (d) nuclear reaction

41. The enthalpy’s change for an exothermic reaction is ____ (a) positive (b) negative (c) zero (d) none of the above

42. A chemical reaction in which heat is absorbed from the surrounding is known as ____ (a) exothermic reaction (b) endothermic reaction (c) chemical reaction (d) nuclear reaction

43. The standard temperature for a chemical is _____ (a) 27⁰C (b) 25⁰C (c) 28⁰C (d) 22⁰C

44. _____ is the heat change when one mole of that substance is formed from its elements under standard condition (a) standard heat of formation (b) standard heat of neutralization (c) standard heat of combustion (d) standard heat of vaporization

45. _____ is the measure of the degree of disorder or randomness of a system (a) enthalpy (b) entropy (c) neutralization (d) vaporization

46. The amount of energy required to change 20g of water to steam is 50kgmol ^{– 1}. Calculate the standard heat of vaporization (a) 45kgmol ^{– 1} (b) 50kg mol ^{– 1} (c) 55kg mol ^{– 1} (d) 60kg mol ^{– 1}     

47. Entropy is denoted by the letter _____ (a) E (b) C (c) S (d) T

48. Which of the following is a condition for the spatiality of a reaction?ΔH – TΔS= ve  (b) ΔH – TΔS = 0 (c) ΔH – TΔS = +Ve (d) ΔS = +Ve

49.

The diagram above represents _____ (a) a catalyzed reaction (b) a reaction very high activation energy (c) an endothermic reaction (d) an exothermic reaction

50. Which of the equation shows that a reaction is in equilibrium (a) ΔG <0 (B) ΔG = ΔH = TΔS (c) ΔG > 0 (d) ΔG = 0

51. NH_3(g) +HCl_(g)        NH₄Cl_(g) the entropy change in the system above is ____ (a) zero (b) in determinate (c) positive (d) negative

52. C_(g) +25_(g)        C5_2(g) ΔH = +89kgmol ^{– 1}   the chemical equation above implies that _____ (a) 89kg of energy is absorbed (b) each of carbon and sulphur has 89kg of energy (c) both carbon and sulphur contribute 89kg of energy (d) 89kg of energy is related

53. The entropy and enthalpy of a system are a measure of ____ (a) degree of disorderliness and heat constant respectively (b) heat content and degree of disorderliness respectively (c) heat content of a system only (d) degree of disorderliness

54. If the value of ΔH for a reaction is negative, it means that the reaction is _____ (a) endothermic  (b) exothermic (c) irreversible (d)  spontaneous

55. The position of equilibrium in a reversible reaction is affected by ______ (a) particle size of elements (b) change in concentration of the reaction (c) change in size of the reaction vessel (d) presence of catalyst

56. Which of the following is false about an equilibrium reaction represented as shown below? P + Q                R + S, ΔH = – x kgmol ^{– 1}     (a) increase in temperature will favour only the forward reaction (b) addition of a catalyst will favour only the forward reaction (c) the reaction and products are hydrogen. This reaction is very vigorous and should becalmed out in the equilibrium (d) the forward and backward reactions proceed at the same rate  

57. Find the PH of a solution of concentration 0.000M (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1

58. _____ of a solution is defined as the logarithm to base 10 of the reciprocal of the hydrogen ion concentration (a) equilibrium constant (b) mole ratio (c) indicator (d) PH

59. The factors that affects the equilibrium are (i) temperature,  (ii) concentration  (iii) pressure  (a) I and ii only (b) I and iii only (c) ii and iii only (d) I, ii and iii

60. _____ states that at constant temperature, the rate of a chemical reaction is directly proportional to the active mass of the reacting substances (a) Avogadro’s law (b) law of mass action (c) le chloeliever;s principle (d) athenaeum’s theory

SSS 2 Chemistry Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.A      2.B      3.C      4.D      5.D  

6.B      7.B      8.A      9.A      10.B   

11.C    12.B    13.D    14.C    15.D

16.A    17.A    18.B    19.D    20.D   

21.C    22.B    23.A    24.A    25.D

26.D    27.C    28.B    29.A    30.B   

31.C    32.B   33.A    34.D    35.A   

36.C    37.D    38.B    39.C    40.D

41.A    42.B    43.C    44.D    45.B

46.C    47.A    48.C    49.B    50.D

51.A    52.B    53.A    54.B    55.C

56.A    57.C    58.D    59.A    60.B

SECTION A THEORY

1. a. State Faraday’s first law of electrolysis.

    b. List the three factors that govern the preferential discharge of ions at the electrode.

    c. Calculate the mass of Aluminium deposited when a current of 3.0 amperes is passed through an aluminium electrolyte for 2 hours. (Al = 27, 1 Faraday = 96500C)

2. a. Mention two elements in each case:

    i. S – block

    ii. P – block in the periodic table.

   b. Give the IUPAC name of the following:

    i. Fe₂(SO₄)₃

    ii. Mg(HCO₃)₂

   c. Copy and complete the table below as appropriate

Particle	Number of protons	Number of electrons	Number of neutrons
	1	1
			8

3. a. List four examples of common oxidizing agents in the laboratory.

b. Write a balanced ionic equations for the Redox reaction between potassium tetraoxomanganate(VII) and Iron(II) tetraoxosulphate (VI) in acidic medium.

MnO₄^–_(aq)     +     Fe²⁺_(aq)  ——-> Mn²⁺_(aq)      +     Fe³⁺_(aq)

4. a. Write the electronic configurations of the following elements in s, p, d, f format;

     i. Si      ii.    S        iii.   Ar         iv.  Ca

   b. Write short notes on the following:

     i. Atomic radius

     ii. Ionization energy

     iii. electron affinity

     iv. electronegativity

(Hint: Give the definition and how they vary both across the periods and down the groups).

SECTION B THEORY

ANSWER ANY THREE (3) QUESTIONS OF YOUR CHOICE

1. i.      Explain the term activation energy

ii.  Using energy diagrams, show the difference between endothermic and  

            exothermic reactions

b. i.      Define the term catalyst and give characteristics of catalyst

     ii.     Using energy profile diagram, show catalyzed and uncatalyzed reactions 

2. i.      Sate le chatelievr’s principle

ii.  State and explain the effects of three (3) factors that affect equilibrium

b.  i.      calculate for the following reaction of 45⁰C    H2(g) + I_2(g)  2HI(g) . the 

                    equilibrium constant (kp) if the partial pressure at 45⁰  are (H₂) = 0.065atom,

                     (I₂) = 0.45atom (HI) = 0.245 atom

     ii.     Calculate the equilibrium for the backward reaction

3. i.     Briefly described, with the help of a suitable diagram, how you would prepare

           and collect hydrogen in the laboratory

ii.  Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction in (i) above

b.  i.      Under what condition would hydrogen react with (a) oxygen (b) chlorine (c)

                      Nitrogen (d) calcium

     ii.     Write an equation for each condition above

4. i.      Describe with the aid of a well labeled diagram the laboratory preparation of

            oxygen

ii.  What would you observe if the following substances are each burned in

            oxygen  (a) sodium (b) sulphur (c) Magnesium

b.  i.      Explain the following statement (i) Oxygen is a diatomic molecule (ii) 32.0g of

                       oxygen and 44.0g of C0₂ each occupy 22.4dm³ at s.t.p

     ii.     Write balanced equations to represent the effect of heat on potassium

                      trioxochlorote(v)  (b) hydrogen peroxide

SECTION C THEORY

1. Define water
2. State types of water and explain them
3. Define Solubility and state 3 uses
4. Explain the following:
5. Mass, Volume , Mole , Molar quantities, Alkanols and Alkanes,
6. State the steps involved in the treatment of river water for town supply.
7. Write two equations to show the removal of permanent hardness of water.
8. Define super-saturated solution
9. State two applications of solubility curves
10. If 12.2g of Pb(NO₃)₂ were dissolved in 21cm³ of distilled water at 20^oC.  Calculate the solubility of the solute in moldm^-3

Solution:

1. Molar mass of Pb(NO₃)₂ = 331g
2. No of moles of Pb(NO₃)₂  =  12.2/331 = 0.037moles
3. If 21cm³ of water at 20⁰C dissolved 0.037mole salt
4. 1000cm³ of water at 20⁰C dissolves 0.037 x 1000/21
5. = 176moles Pb(NO₃) per dm³ H₂O

11. Define the following:  (a) Solubility (b) Saturated solution (c) Unsaturated solution

12. What is relative molecular mass of a compound?

13. Calculate the relative molecular mass of (a) NaNO₃ (b) CuSO₄.5H₂O

14. Calculate the mass of solid product obtained when 16.8g of NaHCO₃was heated strongly until there was no further change.

Solution:

The equation for the reaction is:

2NaHCO_3(s) → Na₂CO_3(s) + H₂O_(g) CO_2(g)

Molar mass of NaHCO₃ = 23 + 12 + 16×3 = 84gmol^-1

Molar mass of Na₂CO₃ = 23×2 +12+16×3 = 106gmol^-1

From the equation:

1. 2 moles NaHCO₃ produces 1 mole Na₂CO₃
2. 2x84g NaHCO₃ produces 106g Na₂CO₃
3. 16.8g NaHCO₃ will produce Xg Na₂CO₃
4. Xg Na₂CO₃ = 106g x 16.8g/ 2x84g  =10.6g

Mass of solid product obtained = 10.6g

15. Define the following terms (a) molar concentration (b) Equivalent point

16.List four reasons why carbon forms numerous organic compounds

17. State five characteristic features of organic compounds.

Civic Education SS2 Examination Questions For Third Term

SENIOR CLASS TWO ( S.S.S. 2)

CIVIC – EDUCATION  1^ST – 3^RD TERM EXAM

SECTION A: OBJECTIVES

Citizenship education promotes the following EXCEPT (A)  tolerance   (B)  hostility   (C) unity      (D) diligence.

1. Citizenship education is necessary for the survival of the following EXCEPT   (A)  democracy            (B) stability    (C)  national development    (D)  poverty.
2. The responsibilities of the citizens to a state are called   (A)  rights    ( B)  obligations   (C)  needs      (D) demands.
3. Which of the following is NOT a duty of a citizen?   (A)  tax payment (B) arrest of criminals    (C) loyalty to state          (D)  voting during election.
4. FESTAC was convened in Lagos in  (A)  1960  (B)  1966  (C)  1979 (D)  1977.
5. The FESTAC celebration was a show of   (A) culture   (B)  unity  (C)  hard work          (D)  fame.
6. The ability that enables us to seek for the freedom of our nation is termed    (A)  freedom fight          (B) independence         (C)  national interest      (D)  national consciousness.
7. National consciousness can be hindered by  (A)  hospitality  (B)  respect for human rights     (C) tribalism (D)  intertribal marriage.
8. Which of the following principles emphasizes equality before the law?  (A)  election  (B) executive      (C)  rule of law      (D)  separation of power.
9. The major difference between direct and indirect democracy is  (A)  election   (B)  constitution                        (C)  personalities           (D) involvement.
10. Which of the following is NOT a major political party in Nigeria?  (A)  APC   (B)  LP   (C)   KOWA             (D)  PDP
11. An election that is conducted within a political party to select a flag bearer is called  (A)  primary election (B)  flag bearer election  (C)  general election      (D)  secret election.
12. NAPEP was established in   (A)  1999  (B)  2000   (C)  2001   (D) 2002.
13. The acronym ‘YES’ is a sub-scheme under   (A)  Operation Feed the Nation    (B)  Green Revolution     (C)  National Poverty Eradication Programme    (D)  Structural Adjustment Programme.
14. The inability to provide for basic needs is  (A)  employment    (B)  poverty     (C) wealth (D) scarcity
15. Refusal to vote in an election is   (A)  political denial      (B) voting abuse     (C) political apathy        (D) popular participation.
16. Which of these is an attribute of a good leader? (A)  Selflessness   (B) Selfishness   (C)  Pride         (D) Arrogance.
17. The following are reasons why leaders fail to protect the interest of their followers EXCEPT  (A) selfishness (B) greed        (C) accountability          (D) party interest.
18. Poverty can cause political apathy (a)true (b)false (c)not sure (d)maybe
19. The following are the effects of poverty EXCEPT (A)  increased crime rate (B)  poor national image (C) heightened social vices (D) people’s advancement.
20. Which of the following is classified under political right of individuals? (a) fight to fair and equal hearing (b) right to work and receive commensurate compensation (c) right to freedom from slavery and forced labour (d) right to just and favourable condition of work
21. Which of the following is not a limitation to human right? (a) being detained by the law (b) wars (c) state of emergency (d) freedom of the press
22. Which of the following is not one of the causes of drug abuse? (a) doubt (b) psychological suppression (c) inspiration (d) political instability
23. Which of the following is not a feature of constitutional democracy? (a) popular sovereignty (b) one party system (c) majority rule (d) basic freedom
24. A process of inculcating into a citizen the inalienable rights is known as ______ (a) fundamental human rights (b) natural rights (c) civic education (d) governing
25. The body of law that relates to crimes is known as _______ (a) criminal law (b) political law (c) crimatic law (d) court law
26. Every citizens of Nigeria is entitled to move freely throughout Nigeria and resides in any parts thereof with the help of _________ (a) right to freedom of expression (b) right to peaceful assembly and association (c) right to freedom of movement (d) right to personal liberty
27. Nigeria was ruled by the British government from ________ until 1^st of October 1960  (a) 1918 (b) 1916 (c) 1912 (d) 1914
28. _______ role could also be extended to consciousness to serve humanity across national boundaries (a) democratic (b) capitalist (c) nationalism (d) governmental
29. The Nigerian National Democratic party (NNDP) was formed on June 24^th, _______ (a) 1932 (b) 1913 (c) 1924 (d) 1923
30. ________ is the first Nigerian political party (a) NNDP (b) NCNC (c) SDP (d) AD
31. Popular participation is the complete involvement of ________ (a) government (b) minority people (c) citizens (d) majority people
32. The following  are the reasons why some people do not participate in politics except  (a) political system (b) violent campaign (c) discrimination (d) free and fair election
33. Human rights are the following except ________ (a) natural (b) constitutional (c) political (d) legal
34. Rights to vote and be voted for is under which right? (a) natural right (b) economic rights (c) political rights (d) civil rights
35. Rights to ownership of property under which rights? (a) economic rights (b) political rights (c)  civil rights (d)   natural right
36. Rights to freedom of movement are under which rights? (a) civil rights (b) political rights (c) natural right (d)  economic rights   
37. A right to freedom of peaceful assembly and association is under which rights? (a) economic rights (b) political rights (c)  civil rights (d)   natural right
38. A right to work and received commensurate compensation is ender which rights?  (a) political rights (b) economic rights (c)  civil rights (d)   natural right
39.  Right to private and family life is under which right? (a) economic rights (b) political rights (c)  civil rights (d)   natural right
40. The following are symptoms of drug abuse except ________ (a) family signs and symptoms (b) governmental signs and symptoms (c) physical signs and symptoms (d) school signs and symptoms 
41. What is the full meaning of W. H. O? (a) Wide Health Organization (b) Word Heath Organization (c) Work Health Organization (d) World Health Organization   
42. Drug abuse is the following use except _______ (a) illegal (b) legal (c) wrong (d) exercise
43. The following are the mode of the usage of TOBACCO Nicotine except _______ (a) smoked (b) swallowed (b) snorted (d) chewed
44. The following are the mode of usage of stimulants cocaine except _______ (a)  snorted (b) smoked (c) injected (d) chewed
45. What is the full meaning of NAFDAC? (a) Nigerian Agency for Food and Drug Administration and Control    (b) Nigerian Agency for Feed and Drug Administration and Control (c) Nationality Agency for Food and Drug Administration and Control (d) National Agency for Food and Drug Administration and Control
46. NAFDAC was officially established by the ministry of the health on January 1^st, ________ (a) 1994 (b) 1995 (c) 1996 (d) 1993
47. What is the full meaning of NDLEA? (a) Nigeria Drug Law Enforcement Agency (b) National Drug Law Enforcement Agency (c) National Drug Law Enforcement Agent (d) Nigerian Drug Law Enforcement Agency
48. Drug laws can be traced back to _______ (a) 1965 (b) 1967 (c) 1966 (d) 1968
49. The following are the negative effects of drug and drug abuse on an individual’s except _______ (a) loss of job (b) broken home (c) death (d) waste of government fund
50. Right to freedom from unlawful imprisonment is under which rights? (a) civil rights (b) political rights (c) economic rights (d) natural rights
51. A right to freedom from slavery and forced labour is under which rights?   (a) economic rights (b) political rights (c)  civil rights (d)   natural right
52. Right to hold public office is under which rights? (a) economic rights (b) political rights (c)  civil rights (d)   natural right
53. A right to freedom of thought, conscience and religion is under which rights? (a) (a) economic rights (b) political rights (c)  civil rights (d)   natural right
54. What is the full meaning of OPC? (a) Odus people’s Congress (b) Odua Persons Congress (c) Odua people’s Congress (d) Oduduwa Peoples Congresssion
55. The ability of parents to provide for the needs of their families is termed       A. Responsible father B. responsible parenthood C. grandparents D. Providing parents
56. Which of the following is not a major challenge of good parenthood? A. Illiteracy B. Education C. Unemployment D. Poverty.
57. The Primary agent of child’s socialization is A. society B. family C. school D. office.
58. Seat belts are meant to be fastened?  A. when you see a LASTMA official B. when you get to the expressway  C. immediately you start driving D. when you sense an accident.
59. One of these agencies maintains traffic in Lagos State. A. NURTW   B. MOT   C. NAFDA    D. LASTMA

SSS 2 Civic Education Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.B      2.D      3.B      4.B      5.D  

6.A      7.D      8.C      9.C      10.D   

11.C    12.A    13.C    14.C    15.B

16.C    17.A    18.C    19.A    20.D   

21.D    22.D    23.D    24.A    25.A

26.C    27.C    28.C    29.C    30.A   

31.C    32.D   33.B    34.C    35.A   

36.A    37.A    38.B    39.C    40.D

41.D    42.B    43.B    44.C    45.D

46.D    47.B    48.B    49.D    50.A

51.C    52.B    53.C    54.D    55.D

56.B    57.B    58.B    59.C    60.D

THEORY SECTION A

1. Mention five importance of citizenship education. (4 marks)
2. Define duties and obligations.                    (2 marks)

2b.  Describe the three categories of obligations.        (2 marks)

3a .Mention any three duties that may not be applicable to students under 18 years. (2 marks)

3b.       Explain  traditions and customs     (1 marks)

3c.       Nigeria has how many ethnic groups?     (1 marks)

4a. Explain the concept ‘National Consciousness’(2  marks)

4b.       Give 4 factors that promote national consciousness        (2 marks)

5a. Differentiate between Direct and Indirect democracy            (2 marks)

5b.       Define capitalist democracy                   (2 marks)

6a. Define political party                                  (1 marks)

6b.       Define political aparthy                          (1 marks)

6c.         The primary objective of any political party is control by ____________  (2 marks)

7. Mention 6 ways and explain any 3 of how political parties compete for power through election(4 marks)

8. Explain Campaign as a strategy to win elections(4 marks)

9. Define poverty and give 7 effects of poverty          (4 marks)

10. A. Define employment                               (2 marks)

B. Give the full meaning of the followings    (4 marks)

• NAFP
• OFN
• YES
• RIDS
• SOWEDS
• GR
• FEAP
• NRDS

SECTION B THEORY

ANSWER THREE (3) QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION

1. What do you understand by the term “Popular Participation”

b.   Enumerate five (5) reasons that can prevents people from participating in politics

c.   What is Popular Organization?

2a. Explain the term Fundamental Human Right

b.   Identify some limitations of human right

c.   in what two (2) perspectives can emergency period be viewed 

3 a. What  do you understand by the term Drug Abuse

b.   List and explain five (5) types of Drugs, their common names and mode of usage

c.   Give three (3) differences between the positive and negative effects of drugs     

4a. List and explain three (3) ways of curbing drug abuse

b.   State any three (3) laws against drug abuse

c.   Explain the activities of NDLEA.

SECTION C THEORY

Explain responsible parenthood

Mention five importance of responsible parenthood in the society.

What is rule of law?

Explain three principles of rule of law.

State and explain factors that lead to responsible parenting

Mention any five factors that can promote good parenthood.

What are road signs? Explain the types of road signs.

Outline five ways road accidents can be reduced if not totally eradicated.

Mentions 4 ways to reduce accident

Mention 5 functions FRSC, LASTMA

SS2 Commerce Examination Questions For Third Term

SENIOR CLASS TWO ( S.S.S. 2)

COMMERCE  3^RD TERM EXAM

SECTION A: OBJECTIVES

1. Any powers exercised by a company in pursuance of objects not authorized by the memorandum of Association is regarded as _______ (a) Trespass (b) A nuisance (c) Ultravires (d) Uberrimaefidei 
2. A business is in existence primarily to _______ (a) Make profits (b) Provide goods and services (c) Provide employment (d) Compete with others in business
3. The word “Ltd”. Written after the name of a company means that _______ (a) The individual members capital is limited (b) The total sum of the company’s capital is limited (c) Member’s are liable to the extent of their holding (d) Company’s location is limited
4. Which of the following is a public co – operation? The _______ (a) Nigeria Breweries Limited  (b) Nigerian Ports Authority (c) Lagos Chamber of Commerce (d) Nigerian Bottling Company
5. Which of the following is not required in a memorandum of Association? The (a) Name of the company (b) Location of the company (c) Names of the board of directors  (d) Limitation of members liability
6. A  memorandum of association is a document (a) Inviting the public to buy a company’s shares   (b) Governing the affairs of a partnership (c) Showing the assets and liabilities of a company at a certain date (d) Defining a company’s relationship with public
7. Which of the following is a feature of co – operative society (a) Dividend is based on the member of share sold (b) Limited membership (c) Owned and run by the state (d) Democratic control and management
8. A private limited liability company differs from a public limited liability company because ______ (a) Of its inability to offer shares to the public (b) It has a separate entity (c) It has many shareholders
9. The main source of capital for a limited liability company is _______ (a) Bank overdraft (b) Government subsidy (c) Undistributed profits (d) Share subscriptions
10. A document that regulates the internal operations of a company is known as _______ (a) Memorandum of association (b) Articles of association (c)   warrant
11. The Nigerian Television Authority is an example of a ________ (a) Private Limited Liability Company (b) Public Limited Liability Company (c) Multinational Corporation (d) Public Corporation
12. Which of the following must be submitted to the registrar of companies before a company is incorporated? (a) Article of association and certificated of incorporation (b) Memorandum of association and certificated of incorporation (c) Article of association and certificated of incorporation (d) Memorandum of association and article of association
13. Which of the following is a features of co – operation societies? (a) Each member has a several votes during meetings (b) Profits are shared on the basis of shares held (c) All members have equal votes during meeting (d) Members are not involved in running the business
14. Which of the following is not a necessary document in incorporating a company? (a) Memorandum of association (b) Articles of association (c) A statement of nominal capital (d) A statement of minimum subscription
15. Details of a new share for which the public is being invited to subscribe are contained in the _________ (a) A memorandum of association (b) Certificate of trading (c) Certificate of incorporation (d) Prospectus
16. The minimum member of membership for a public limited company is ___ (a)Two (b) Seven (c) Seventeen (d) Twenty
17. A document used as a polite way of refusing credit is __________ (a) Advice note (b) Quotation (c) Proforma invoice (d) Invoice
18. Which of the following price quotations requires the buyer to take delivery at the manufacturer’s warehouse? (a) Ex – works (b) F.O.R (c) F.O.B (d) F.A.S
19. The board of directors of public corporation is appointed by the __________ (a) Government (b) Shareholders (c) Management (d) Employees
20. The object clause of a limited liability company is stated in the ___________ (a) Memorandum of association (b) Article of association (c) Certificate of incorporation (d) Trading certificate
21. The abbreviation E and O.E on an invoice seeks to _________ (a) Draw the attention of the buyer to the contents of the document (b) Show that there is no error about prices quoted on the invoice  (c) Protect the seller against error on the document (d) Draw this attention of the seller to the contents of the document
22. When C.I.F is quoted on an invoice, it means that the price includes the _________ (a) Cost of goods only (b) Cost of insurance only (c) Cost of carriage only (d) Cost, insurance and carriage
23. Which of the following pieces of information would be found in  typical debit note? (a) Customer code (b) Date of invoice (c)Brief reason for the debit (d) E and O.E
24. An overdraft is the _________ (a) Amount permitted to be withdrawn in excess of one’s deposit (b) Excessive cash withdrawn by commercial banks from the central banks (c) Credit balance standing in the name of a customer (d) Special deposit made by commercial banks       
25. The co – operative society that performs a combination of the function of other types of co – operatives is called the _______ (a) Consumer co – operative (b) Multipurpose co – operative (c) Producer co – operative (d) Thrift and credit co – operative
26. Where a number of insurance companies are liable under one policy, the principle applicable is ______ (a) subrogation (b) contribution (c) indemnity (d) utmost good faith
27. Which of the following is an example of life assurance? (a) third party policy (b) comprehensive policy (c) fidelity guarantee policy (d) endowment policy
28. Which of the following legislations aims primarily at protection of consumers (a) law of contract (b) trade description Act  (c) company’s Act (d) partnership Act
29. Fidelity guarantee insurance is a cover against loss arising from ____ (a) trade debt (b) personal accident (c) dishonest staff (d) fire disaster
30. Goods become the property of the buyer on the transfer of liability and possession without immediate payment under the _____ (a) hire purchase agreement (b) credit sale agreement (c) auction sales agreement (d) conditional sales agreement
31. Which of the following ensures that the quality of a product is maintained? (a) price control board (b) chamber of commerce (c) food  and drugs Act (d) standards organization of Nigeria
32. An insurance policy which benefits one’s family only in the event of one’s death is known as ______ (a) a comprehensive insurance (b) a whole life assurance (c) an endowment policy (d) an annuity
33. A group of people in the same line of business which come together for the interest of its members is called ____ (a) chambers of commerce (b) trade association (c) trade union (d) consortium
34. An organization formed mainly by traders and manufacturers from different commercial fields to cater for interest of members is ____ (a) trade union (b) co – operative society (c) trade association (d) chamber of commerce
35. Which of the following function is NOT performed by trade association? (a) research and development (b) standardization of product (c) credit facilities (d) technical information
36. The main purpose of branding is to ______ (a) increase the quantity of goods demanded (b) increases the selling prices of goods (c) differentiate goods from other similar goods (d) enhances turnover of goods
37. Which of the following is a type of marine insurance? (a) endowment (b) hull (c) accident (d) fidelity
38. Insurance is necessary because of the need to ______ (a) pool resources together (b) meet uncertainties in future (c) make profit (d) lend money to individuals
39. A hire purchase transaction becomes a sale when the _____ (a) hirer accepts the hire purchase terms (b) finance company agrees to pay (c) hirer takes possession of goods (d) hirer pays full cost of the goods
40. Which of the following is not a means of consumer protection (a)price control (b) sales of goods Act (c) trade description Act (d) tax laws
41. Where two or more companies agree to work on a project too large for one of them, this is called ______ (a) consortium (b) merger (c) combination (d) cartel
42. The main features of a holding company is _______ (a) that resources are used for the interest of the community (b) accepting responsibilities beyond the aims of private enterprises (c) that it has financial control over other companies (d) that it has profit sharing schemes for employees
43. Which of the following types of insurance is taken against claims made by staff who get injured while at work? (a) fidelity guarantee insurance (b) consequential loss insurance (c) product’s liability  insurance (d) employers liability insurance
44. The main advantages of sea transport over air transport is _____ (a) capacity (b) safety (c) speed (d) patronage
45. The term “Utmost Good Faith” in insurance requires that the insured must _____ (a) not make profit from any loss suffered (b) received his compensation fully in the event of loss (c) disclose all relevant facts on what is being insured (d) pay his premium regularly
46. Which of the following is referred t as the oldest form of insurance? (a) marine insurance (b) burglary insurance (c) whole life assurance (d) accident insurance
47. Which of the following insurance principles states that a suffer financially in the evnt of a loss? (a) proximate cause (b) indemnity (c) insurable interest (d) subrogation
48. The assured is the _______ (a) insurance company (b) insurance company’s client (c) insurance broker (d) insurance agent
49. Which mode of transport would you suggest as the most suitable for natural gas? (a) air (b) sea (c) pipeline (d) road
50. In insurance the term Uberrimae fide stands for _____ (a) utmost good faith (b) subrogation (c) insurable interest (d) indemnity against loss
51. ___ is the document issued by the warehouse authorities to the depositor of goods. (a) delivery warrant (b) delivery note (c) dock warrant
52. ___ is a document issued by a dock warrant holder to enable a third party to collect a specified part of the goods from the warehouse. (a) delivery warrant (b) delivery order (c) dock warrant
53. A person that buys shares hoping to resell at higher price is called a (a) bull (b) bear (c) stag (d) broker
54. In a stock exchange transaction, the buyer is NOT entitled to the dividend when the stock is quoted (a) clean (b) ex-dividend (c) double barreled (d) cum – dividend (e) firm
55. Any member of the public who wants to buy shares at the stock market will first of all meet a/an (a) agent (b) broker (c) jobber (d) shareholder
56. When shares are sold cum-div, it means the (a) holder is entitled dividend (b) holder cannot resell it. (c) stockbroker is entitled to the dividend (d) dividend is fixed
57. The amount of capital which a new company proposes to be registered is called ___ (a) called-up capital (b) nominal capital (c) issued capital    (d) fixed capital
58. Assets of business which cannot be changed easily to cash are known as ____(a) floating capital      (b) fixed capital       (c) working capital      (d) current capital
59. The excess value of the assets of a business over its liabilities is ____(a) capital owned           (b) working capital          (c) issued capital          (d) reserve capital
60. Debenture is an example of ____(a) fixed capital      (b) share capital     (c)  loan capital   (d) working capital

SSS 2 Commerce Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C      2.A      3.A      4.C      5.C  

6.D      7.A      8.B      9.D      10.B   

11.D    12.D    13.B    14.D    15.D

16.B    17.C    18.A    19.A    20.A   

21.C    22.D    23.C    24.A    25.B

26.B    27.C    28.C    29.A    30.B   

31.A    32.B   33.B    34.C    35.B   

36.C    37.C    38.C    39.D    40.C

41.D    42.C    43.A    44.B    45.C

46.D    47.A    48.B    49.C    50.B

51.C    52.B    53.A    54.E     55.B

56.C    57.B    58.B    59.B    60.C

SECTION A THEORY

1. Explain the meaning of Public Enterprises?

b.  Explain five (5) sources of finance (Capital) to public corporation

2a. Define a Company?

b.         Explain three (3) kinds of companies which may be contributed under the companies Act 1965

c.         Explain these words: (i) Memorandum of Association (ii)Articles of Association (iii)Prospectus

3a. Explain the term Commodity?  b.State the requirement for trading

c.         Explain these trade abbreviations and state the full meaning (i) C.O.D (II) C.I.F (iii) F.O.B

(iv)       E and O.E       (V)        F.O.R

SECTION B THEORY

1. What is Insurance?

b.  List at least five (5) insurance companies in Nigeria

c. Differentiate between Insurable risk and Non insurable risks

d. Explain three (3) basic principles of insurance

2a. What is Credit?

b. Explain three (3) ways by which bank grants credit to consumers

c.   Give three (3) differences between Higher Purchase and Deferred Payment 

4a. What is Trade Association?

b. Give three (3) aims and objectives of Trade Association.

SECTION C THEORY

List and explain five types of warehouse

Explain five importance of warehousing in commerce.

Write short notes on the following    (a) Dock Warrant      (b) Delivery Order

Outline five factors to be considered in siting a warehouse

Describe each of the following (a) Stockbrokers       (b) Issuing Houses      (c) Securities

Write short notes on the followings; (a) capital market       (b) money market

List four securities traded on the stock exchange.

What is the second- Tier securities market?

State any four sources of capital for a public limited liability company.

List three importance of working capital to a business.

SS2 CRS Examination Questions For Third Term

      SENIOR CLASS TWO ( S.S.S. 2)

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES   1^ST – 3^RD TERM EXAM

SECTION A: OBJECTIVES

1. In the creation story; the job of giving names to all living creatures was giving by _______ (a) God (b) Adam and Eve (c) Eve (d) Man
2. Reuben advised his brothers not to kill Joseph but to cast him into a pit because he ______ (a) Did not want them shed the blood of the innocent (b) Wanted to rescue him afterwards and bring him safely to their father (c) Wanted  to bury him alive in the pit (d) Wanted them to sell Joseph to the Ishmaelite
3. Joseph was sold to the Ismaelites for _______ shekels of silver (a) Forty (b) Thirty – five (c) Thirty (d) Twenty
4. When the children  of Israel came to the wilderness of sin, they murmured against Moses and Aaron because ________ (a)Egyptians were in hot pursuit (b) They were hungry (c) There was neither dew or rain for seven years (d) They were thirsty
5. At the time Deborah became a judge in Israel, she was a (a) Seer (b) Prophetess (c) Priestess (d) Medium
6. Which of the following did God do on the seventh day after he had completed the work of creation? He (a) Blessed and hallowed the seventh day (b) Worshipped on the seventh day (c)Took a record of all that he had created (d) Blessed all that he had created
7. According to the creation story, man became a living being because God ______ (a) Formed him out of the dust (b) Gave him tree of knowledge (c) Gave him a woman to live with him (d) Gave him the breadth of life
8. Who mad you a price and a judge over us? This statement by the two Hebrews to Moses signifies the _______ (a) Recognition of Moses divine authority by the Hebrews (b) Recognition of pharaoh’s authority by the Hebrews (c) Rejection of Moses leadership by his people (d) Rejection of Moses as an Egyptians prince
9. Which of the following does not portray the quality of leadership in the life of Deborah? (a)Ability to inspire others (b) Her marriage to Lapidoth (c) Her sound judgment of cases (d) Her Faith in God
10. God’s creative ability was manifested by his ______ (a) Approving that a thing be done (b) Commanding word prefaced by “there be”  (c) Ordering the Holy Spirit to act (d)Choosing the better of two alternative models
11. After Joseph had revealed himself to his brothers, he ______ (a)Gave his brothers food (b) Fell upon Benjamin’s neck and smiled (c) Kissed Benjamin and departed (d) Kissed all his brothers and wept 
12. Which of the following instructions did God gave to man after he had created him? (a) Go ye into the world and exercise full authority over it (b) Be fruitful and multiply, and fill the earth and subdue it (c) Be you kind to all the creatures of the earth (d) I have given you power over all the world, make full use of it
13. Which of the following leadership qualities was manifested by Joseph when he told his brothers not to be angry with themselves for selling him? (a) Wisdom (b) Good judgment (c) Maturity (d) Forgiveness
14. Moses ran away from Egypt because he _______ (a) Did not like to be brought up in Egyptian circles (b) Could no longer endure the famine in the land (c) Feared that the news of his act of murder would reach the king (d) Heard a divine call
15. Aaron accompanied Moses to Pharaoh because _______ (a)Aaron was a Levite (b) Aaron was bolder than Moses (c)Moses was deficient in speech (d) Aaron was appointed by the people     
16. The Israelites under Barak defeated the Canaanite troops led by ______ (a) Jael (b) Heber (c) Sisera (d) Abinoam
17. The second account of creation was centered on the creation (a) Birds (b) The heavens (c) Man (d) Plants
18. When Joseph was sent to see the welfare of his brothers, he met them pasturing at _______ (a)The wilderness of sin (b) Gilead (c) Shechem (d) Dothan
19. Who among the following did God direct Moses to appoint as his successor? (a) Caleb (b) Eleazar (c) Joshua (d) Gideon
20. Moses experienced the burning bush that was not consumed at _______ (a) Horeb (b) Bethel (c) Nebo (d) Midiam
21. How did Moses prove his leadership quality when God threatened anyone that sinned (a) Forgave them (b) Atoned for their sin (c) Punished them himself (d) Reprimanded them
22. The name of Moses means ______ (a) Baptized in water (b) Abandoned in water (c) Drawn out of water (d) Washed in water
23. “Fear not, stand firm, and see the salvation of the Lord, which he will work for you today”. Moses made this statement when? (a) The Israelites were trapped between the host of Egypt and the red sea (b) Israel was suddenly attacked by the Amalekites at Rephidim (c) The Israelites faced hunger and death at the wilderness of sins (d) The people became afraid at mount Sinai as a result of the thunders and lightening.
24. The land, the sea and the vegetations were created on the _________ (a)First day (b) Third day (c) Fourth day (d) Fifth day
25. The miraculous crossing of the red sea by the Israelites shows ________ (a) God’s guidance and protection over his people (b) The ill – equipped army of pharaoh (c) God’s fulfillment of his promises to destroy the Egyptians (d) Moses as a reliable leader
26. In the battle against Sisera, Deborah’s co – operation with Barak was based on her (a) Belief in Barak’s power (b) Absolute belief and trust in God (c) Reliance on a large army (d) Power as a prophetess
27. God charge Joshua during his call to the cross the Jordan river in order to (a) Fight the people of Jericho (b) Possess the promised land (b) Appoint Eleazar to succeed Aaron (d) Circumstance all Hebrew children
28. The priest of midian gave Moses, his daughter (a) Shiphrah (b) Zippo rah (c) Puah (d) Gershom
29. God hardened the Egyptian’s heart because (a) Of his plan to punish pharaoh (b) Moses and Aaron deserved God’s punishment (c) God wanted to gain glory over pharaoh (d) Pharaoh was a powerful king
30. Joshua was a successful leader of is people because he_______  (a) Was chosen by Moses (b) Trusted in God (c) Was a good spy (d) Was a brilliant soldier
31. _____shows the way of our living which can be responsible or irresponsible (a) life (b) live (c) behaviour
32. ______ was dedicated to God all the days of his life (a) John (b) Samuel (c) Peter
33. Eli have ____ sons (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4
34. ______ is an act of rebellion against God and His words (a) disobedience (b) disregard (c) obedience
35. Saul was anointed by Prophet _____ (a) Elijah (b) Samuel (c) Elisha
36. God promise to Eli childrens was ____ (a) peace (b) death (c) forgiveness
37. God instructions to Saul to the Amalekites was to ____(a) kill all (b) save some (C) save all
38. The rejection of Saul as King made him to be in state of ____(a) insanity (b)  joy (c) sadness
39. _____ is the believe to heal mental disease (a) dance (b) music (c) instruments
40. Who did not submit to the will of God? (a) David (b) Moses (c) Jonah
41. Friendship can be mutual or ____(a) choice (b) casual (c) confidential
42. Which one of these is NOT example of characteristics of bad friends (a) gossip (b) betrayal (c) keeping secret
43. Which one of these is NOT an example of characteristics of good friends  (a) interest shared (b) stealing (c) truthfulness
44. Friendship of the world is enmity with God can be found in the Bible book of ____ 4:4 (a) James (b) 1 Peter (c) 1 John
45. ____is a selfish or excessive desire for more than is needed or deserved (a) jealousy (b) greed (c) envy
46. Which one of these is an effect of greed? (a) joy (b) death (c) friendship
47. Which of these person had greed in the Bible? (a) James (b) Gehazi (c) Moses
48. Which one of these does not have greed in the bible (a) Matthew (b) Judas (c) Ahab
49. The sons of Eli_____ (a) abuse God (b) defile God’s law (c) abusive the prophet
50. ____ made a wise decision before God (a) David (b) Solomon (c) Elijah
51. _____ made unwise decisions in the bible (a) Solomon (b) Rehoboam (c) Paul
52. One of the consequences of disobedience is ____(a) sacrifice (b) punishment (c) forgiveness
53. One of the consequences of obedience is _____ (a) reward (b) joy (c) punishment
54. Which one of these is not parent responsibilities (a) provision (b) accommodation (c) lack of trust
55. Which one of the following is parental responsibilities (a) unhealthy (b) communication (c) disrespect
56. The making of decision by Christians should be based on ____ (a) religion (b) Holy spirit (c) Pastors
57. Parents will be Judge according to the responsibilities to their children? (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe
58. _____ means the act of given into higher power or authority (a) admission (b) submission (c) submissive
59. _____is an act of choice or judgment (a) awarded (b) contest (c) decision
60. _____ means the follower of Christ known by the life of Christ they live (a) believers (b) Christians (c) Jews

SSS 2 CRS Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.D      2.B      3.D      4.B      5.B  

6.A      7.D      8.C      9.C      10.B   

11.D    12.B    13.D    14.C    15.C

16.C    17.D    18.D    19.C    20.A   

21.B    22.C    23.A    24.B    25.A

26.B    27.B    28.B    29.C    30.B   

31.C    32.B   33.A    34.A    35.B   

36.B    37.A    38.A    39.B    40.C

41.B    42.C    43.B    44.A    45.B

46.B    47.B    48.A    49.B    50.B

51.B    52.B    53.A    54.D    55.B

56.B    57.A    58.B    59.C    60.B

SECTION A THEORY

1. Explain the Sovereignty of God

b.   Narrate the first creation story 

2.   What is leadership?

b.   Briefly narrate the story of leadership of the following leaders in the bible:    (i) Moses as a leader   (ii) Joseph as a leader (iii) Joshua as a leader (iv)  Deborah as a leader

3.   Described the crossing of the red sea and God’s role in the episode (Guidance and protection, God’s provision)

SECTION B THEORY

1A. Define Parental responsibilities

1B. List 3 parental responsibilities

2A. What is friendship?

2B. List 2 characteristics of bad friendship

2C. List 3 characteristics of good friendship

3A. Define Greed

3B. List 3 effects of Greed

4A. List 2 consequences of obedience

4B. List 3 consequences of disobedience

5A. ‘spear the road, you spoil the child’ is in _____ ( Proverbs  or  Psalm )?

5B. List 2 wise decisions to be made as a Christian before God

SECTION C THEORY

1. Discuss religious situation in Israel at the time of Elijah and Obadiah
2. Why did Elijah pronounce drought on Israel and how did Ahab react to it? what lessons about the supremacy of God do we learn from these events
3. Narrate Elijah’s fight on mount carmels
4. Discuss the various religious reforms carried out by Josiah
5. Describe any three practices which Amos condemned in the religious life of Israel and indicate three things he recommended in their places.

SS2 Data Processing Examination Question For Third Term

SENIOR CLASS TWO ( S.S.S. 2)

DATA – PROCESSING    1^ST – 3^RD TERM EXAM

SECTION A: OBJECTIVES

1. In the approach of data modeling ____ data modeling illustrate the specific entities, attribute and relationship involved in business function. (a) Conceptual Data Modeling    (b) Logical Data Modeling (c) Flat data Modeling (d) Physical Data Modeling
2. The processing of structuring and organizing data is referred to as ______ (a)Data Structure    (b) Data Organization    (c) Data Manipulation    (d) Data Modeling
3.      The major concept for data modeling is to ___________(a) Translate simple system design to complex representation of data (b) Translate complex system design to simple representation of data (c) Translate simple system design to simple representation of data (d) Translate complex system design to complex representation of data
4. The term “Data Model” refers to two different things- data organization and ________ (a) Data Model    (b) Data Processing    (c) Data Structure    (d) Data Organization
5. One of the following is an example of a DBMS package. (a) Ms Word    (b) Ms Power-point    (c) Ms access    (d) Ms Outlook
6. In the approach of data modeling ____ data modeling identifies the highest level relationship between different entities. (a) Conceptual Data Modeling     (b) Logical Data Modeling   (c) Flat data Modeling (d) Physical Data Modeling
7. ____ model organizes data using two fundamental construct called record and set. (a) Network (b) Relational    (c) Object Oriented    (d) Star Schema
8. ____model consists of a single, two-dimensional array of data elements. (a) Network    (b) Relational    (c) Object Oriented    (d) Star Schema
9. ____database model is organized into an upside-down tree-like structure (a) Network (b) Relational     (c) Object Oriented    (d) Hierarchical
10. ____ is an attribute or field that can be used to identify a record in a database table or file. (a) Data    (b) Field     (c) Key         (d) Table
11. ____ is used to design a database in a computer. (a) Database package (b) Graphics package (c) Spreadsheet package (d) Word Processing package
12. ____model organizes data using two fundamental constructs, called records and sets. (a) Hierarchical    (b) Relational    (c) Network    (d) Optical
13. Standard Data model can also be called ____.
    1. Manufacture     Standard data Model  
    1. Industry Standard data Model        
    1. Structured Standard data Mode
    1. Enhanced Standard data Model
14. ____ are great communication tool because it allows interaction and communication between designers, programmers and end users. (a) Data Model    (b) Normal Form    (c) Database        (d) Attribute
15. What is the full meaning of ISDM? (a) Industry Significant Data model    (b) International Standard Data Model   (c) International Significant Data Model    (d) Industry Standard Data Model
16. ____ is the international defense enterprise architecture specification for exchange group. (a) Ideas Group    (b) Standard Group    (c) Best Group         (d) Normal Group
17. ____ is a collection of computer software that enables users to define, create and maintain a database. (a) Database Management System (b) Normalization(c) Data Model (d) Normal Form
18. ____ is the logical design method which minimizes duplicate or redundant data and design flaws. (a) Database (b) Normalization (c) Form (d) Data Model
19. ____ is the process of efficiently organizing data in a database. (a) Database(b) Normalization (c) Form (d) Model
20. ____ is an attribute or field that can be used to identify a record in a database table or file. (a) Key    (b) Attribute    (c) Entity    (d) Relationship
21. Records in a____file are inserted as they arrive(a) Serial (b) sequential (c) indexed     (d) random
22. ___ is the collection of related data items or field.(a) Data base (b) Field (c) Record (d) File
23. ___ is the smallest unit of information stored in computer file. (a) Data item (b) Field (c) Record (d) Bytes
24. ___ file is referred to as direct access file. (a) Random (b) Indexed (c) Serial (d) Sequential
25. A file that is sorted on a sequence of fields is called……(a) Heap file (b) random file (c) Stack file (d) hash file
26. An internet benefit that helps people to get materials and read them in preparation for examination is called……….. (a) E-Learning (b) reference files (c) E-resources (d) E-coordination
27. A term used to refer to the process of accessing and viewing web pages on the Internet is called___(a) Browse (b) Opera (c) Internet (d) scroll
28. All are examples of internet browsers except___(a) Opera (b) Safari (c) Chrome (d) Emotion
29. A global system of interconnected computer network that uses the standard Protocol suite is called___ (a) Internet      (b) Selection     (c) user net        (d) Sequential
30.  A browser can also be called___ (a) Web browser (b) Organization browser(c) Storage browser (d) Correction browser
31. A Mail that one has not requested for is called___ (a) Spam (b) View (c) Delete (d) Creation
32. ___ is not a measure of internet security (a) Encryption (b) protocols (c) Cryptographic methods(d) Usenet
33. A secret word or string of characters that is used for authentication, to prove identity or gain access to a resource ___(a) Computer file (b) Manual file (c) Password (d) Overwriting
34. A branch of computer security specifically related to the internet is called__ (a) Internet security (b) Encryption (c) dotted file (d) Anti-spam
35. ___ is not a way in which the internet can be abused (a) Mail bomb (b) Hacking (c) Spam mails (d)  TCP transponder
36. PowerPoint can use existing documents of___ (a) Word (b) Access (c) pseudo codes (d) Excel
37. ___ is a software used for making presentations (a) PowerPoint (b) Excel (c) Access(d) Publisher
38. ___ Means use of sounds in presentations (a) Animation (b) Backing (c) media (d) storage
39. ____ is not a feature of presentation packages (a) Creation of slides (b) Insertion of video and audio (c) Animation (d) SMS
40. One of these is not an example of a presentation package? (a) Harvard graphics (b) Ms-PowerPoint (c) Hacking (d) None
41. ___is included which allow users to create a single template that could be used across multiple pages and even the whole web site (a) Dynamic web template (b) Access (c) pseudo codes (d) Excel
42. ___gives users the advantage to create snippets (a) Code Snippets (b) Excel (c) Access(d) Publisher
43. A form of auto completion is a key feature that assists the user while typing in code view. (a) Animation (b) Backing (c) intellisense (d) snippets
44. ___ give users a new easy way to create web graphics for navigation and links (a) Interactive buttons (b) Insertion codes (c) Animation (d) SMS
45. One of these is not an example of a Web design package? (a) Adobe Dreamweaver (b) Shuttle (c) Amaya (d) Net Objects
46. FrontPage helps you to create an effective and professional web page quickly without the knowledge of HTML programming language (a) true (b) false
47. The full meaning of ISP is__ (a) internet service provider (b) Internet Protocol Service (c) Internet protocol sending
48. A___ package is used to create web pages in the Hyper text markup Language (a) web browser design (b) web design (c) web net
49. The Hyper-text markup Language (HTML) format to be rendered by a client application called a___(a) web designer (b) web client (c) web browser
50. Which of the following is not components of web design package? (a) advertising (b) animated button (c) table tennis
51. The following are examples of a presentation package except           (a) Ms-PowerPoint (b) Macromedia Flash (c) Windows Movie Maker (d) Ms Excel
52. ___is the main reason/use of presentation package(a) calculation (b) word processing  (c) presentation (d) analysis
53. ____Package is a software package that is used to display information usually in form of a slide(a) graphic  (b) spreadsheet (c) database (d) presentation
54. To close a presentation, click on the __ bar. a) title b) task c) status d) File tab, Close and exit
55. To add new slides, you choose the __.a) animation b) Home tab c) office button d) file
56. To save a document, which of these will you click on? a) animation b) Home tab c) office button d) file
57. ____ gives the user the ability to check if their code is standard complaint. (a) accessibility checker (b) dynamic web template (c) code snippets (d) split view
58. ___ is a text that scrolls across the screen (a) scheduled pictures (b) search form (c) marquees (d) animated button
59. ___ allows users to create website and blogs and customized them with their own text, photos and movies (a) Microsoft Frontpage            (b) iweb (c) Dreamweaver (d) Amaya
60. ___ is a web tool that allow users to create  accustom websites without having to know HTML code(a)Microsoft Frontpage(b) iweb  (c) Dreamweaver  (d) Amaya

SSS 2 Data Processing Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.B      2.D      3.B      4.A      5.C  

6.A      7.A      8.B      9.D      10.C   

11.A    12.B    13.B    14.C    15.D

16.A    17.A    18.A    19.B    20.A   

21.A    22.A    23.D    24.A    25.B

26.A    27.C    28.D    29.A    30.A   

31.A    32.D   33.C    34.A    35.D   

36.A    37.A    38.C    39.D    40.C

41.A    42.A    43.C    44.A    45.B

46.A    47.A    48.B    49.C    50.C

51.A    52.C    53.D    54.D    55.B

56.C    57.A    58.C    59.B    60.C

SECTION A THEORY

1. List the generation of computers and their invention

2. List the classification of computers

3. List 3 Uses of ICT and the Impact on the society

4. Mention 3 types of operating system and 2 functions

5. List 4 steps on how to carry out Microsoft word

6. Define DBMS and list 4 examples

 7. Define spreadsheet ,3 uses             

8. Define Data modeling , 2 concept

SECTION B THEORY

1a. Clearly distinguish between sequential and random file organization

1b. Define the term “ Internet”

2a. State FIVE benefits of the Internet to the society.

2b. List Five Examples of an internet browser

3a. What is E-Banking?

3b. State any THREE internet security method you know, and explain ONE

4a. What is a Presentation Package?

4b. State three (3) Examples of Presentation package

5a. Define a Web Design Package

5b. Mention FIVE uses of Web Design package

SECTION C THEORY

1. State two uses of a presentation package

2. List five examples of a presentation package

3. What is a presentation package?

4. Mention two features of a presentation package.

5. Mention four features of Microsoft PowerPoint 2007

6. Mention the uses of the above-mentioned features

7. Describe how you would add picture objects to your slides

8. What is the meaning of HTML?

9. Explain the meaning of the term web design

10. State three uses of  a web design package

11. What is a graphic software?

12. Explain two features of a CorelDraw

SS2 Economics Examination Question For Third Term

SENIOR CLASS TWO ( S.S.S. 2)

ECONOMICS   1^ST – 3^RD TERM EXAM

SECTION A: OBJECTIVES

1. Change in …… are caused by the same factors that causes changes in demand and supply   (a).   graph      (b) line (c).equilibrium  (d).   all of the above
2. The normal demand curve shapes downward from left to right     (A) True       (B)     False
3. The degree of spread of the numerical value in a distribution is …(a).central tendency (b). arithmetic mean   (c). mean deviation  (d). measure of dispersion
4. ……… is the average of a series of figures or value     (a).  median  (b).   range   (c).   mode   (d).   mean
5. ………… is the satisfaction that a consumer derives from consuming a commodity at any given time     (a).   total utility    (b).   marginal utility      (c).    Average utility      (d).   none of the above
6. ……….. measures how change in income of consumers will affect the quantity of commodities demanded    (a).   employment     (b).    income elasticity of demand     (c).    income elasticity of supply     (d).   out of market price 
7. There are …………. Measures of central tendency   (a). 3    (b).   5    (c).    2     (d).   4
8. Arithmetic mean can also be prepared for … data    (a).  ungroup (b). grouped  (c). single (d). all of the above
9. ………. Is a small change in price leading to a greater change in commodity of goods supplied     (a).   Perfectly inelastic supplied     (b).    elasticity supply      (c).   inelastic supply     (d).   unity supply
10. ………. Refers to the satisfaction which a consumer derives per unit of a commodity consumed   (a).    total utility     (b).   average utility     (c).   marginal utility        (d).   utility
11. A change in ………….. is when the curve shifts to an entirely new position    (a).  demand     (b).   price          (c).     commodity      (d).   curve

Use these formula to answer No 12 – 14

                MUA/PA    =   MUB/PB  =   MUC/PC

1. PA,  PB AND PC represents     (a).  consumer    (b).   change     (c).   price    (d).    demand
2. A,  B and C represents …………….  (a).  commodities    (b).   quality    (c).   consumption      (d).    quantity
3. MU is ………….   (a).   maximized utility     (b).     Management union     (c).   marginal unity      (d).   marginal utility
4. Measurement of elasticity of supply is changed in supply divided by     (a).   Change in quantity demanded    (b).     Change in consumption      (c).    change in price     (d).   all of the above
5. ………. Refers to how the government or its agency fixes price of essential commodities    (a).   legislators      (b).   price control      (c).   price policy      (d). government policy
6. The difference between the maximum and the minimum values in a set of data is known as____(a).   quadratic mean    (b).   variance     (c).   mean    (d).   range
7. The equilibrium price of oranges is 50k if for some reasons, the price rises to 60k, there will be ……………    (a).   excess demand     (b).   excess supply     (c).   shortage in the market     (d).   no buyer in the market
8. An increase change in supply implies a …………   (a).   movement along the demand curves     (b).  decrease in price    (c).   shift in the supply curve   to the right      (d).   shift  in supply curve to the left
9. The force of demand and supply is called ……………..   (a).   technology development    (b).   price     (c).   market force     (d).   commodities
10. ____________ is a point of contact, place, means of communication whereby sellers and buyers exchange goods and services (a) production centers  (b) market (c) communication centers (d) none of the above
11. The profit maximization of  a firm is where marginal cost is equal to _________ (a) marginal revenue (b) price commodity (c) average cost (d)  average revenue
12. The following are the wages determination except one (a) forces of demand and supply  (b) government policy (c) type of market (d) activities of trade unions
13. _________ is  situation in which a persons of working age are unable to find work (a) employment (b) trade union (c) perfect market (d) unemployment
14. ___ cost is defined as the cost of production which varies or changes directly with the level of output (a) variable (b) fixed (c) total
15. The higher the cost of living, the higher the wages are likely to be  (a) True   (b)  False
16. ___________ is the total number of people of working age in a country who are able and willing by the law to work (a) labour force (b) peer group (c) graduate (d) workers
17. In _________ markets economy, private individuals play greater role than government (a) mixed (b) socialism (c) capitalism (d) all of the above
18. _________ is the money income accruing to a firm from the sale of goods and services, assets or investment (a) capital (b) revenue (c) cost (d) money
19. There are ________ types of cost concepts (a) 10 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 5
20. The full meaning of P. P. C.  means __________ (a) production possibility curve (b) possibility production curve (c) production provision cost (d) production product cost
21. ___________ for labour is the total number of workers employers are willing to employ at a particular period of time at a given wage rate (a) supply (b) demand (c) increase (d) none of the above
22. Examples of __________ are uni – levers Nig. Plc, Tenco Nig.  Ltd, Texaco Nig. Let (a) industry (b) firm (c) plant (d) construction
23. Location of __________ is the sitting of a firm in a particular place (a) plant (b) industry (c) factory (d) business
24. The following are conditions necessary for a perfect market except one (a) common price (b) poor table goods (c) primary product (d) no preferential treatment
25. ________ of labour is the ability of labour to increase output without increasing the quantity of labour  (a) efficiency (b) demand (c) supply (d) none of the above
26. _________ unemployment is common with the unskilled type of labour (a) residual (b) casual (c) mass (d) seasoned 
27. The following factors influences the location of an industry except one (a) nearness to the market  (b) political stability (c) creation of competition (d) availability of capital
28. One of these is not a factor affecting the size of labour force (a) wages (b) migration (c) government policies (d) role of women
29. When a musician change to becomes a footballer, it is called _________ mobility of labour (a) efficiency (b) geographical (c) occupational (d) all of the above
30. The major aim of socialist economy is to produce goods and services  for profit making (a)True (b) False
31. __________ product is the output per unit of the variable factors employed (a) total (b) variable (c) average (d) marginal
32. ________ is a market for short term loan (a) money market (b) factor market (c) capital market (d) labour market    
33. _________ is a group of firms producing similar products and under separate administration of management (a) firm (b) plant (c) industry (d) factory          
34. The following are the factors affecting geographical mobility of labour except one (a) government polices (b) discrimination (c) language barriers (d) wage rate
35. The following are the features of capitalism except one (a) promotion of welfare (b) accumulation of wealth (c) individual satisfaction (d) freedom of choice
36. When the supply of labour exceeds the demand, wage rate will fall  (a) True  (b)  False
37. __________ market situation is where there is only one producer or supplier of goods and services that has no substitute (a) duopoly (b) monopoly (c) oligopoly (d) monophony
38. One of the following is not an example of fixed cost (a) building (b) land (c) labour (d) plant
39. In fixing wages, the government agency takes the following factors into consideration except __________ (a) cost of living (b) level of production (c) types of occupation (d) cost of production
40. ____ is the total amount of money which an individual, for various reasons, wish to hold. (a) supply of money (b) demand of money (c) cash
41. ____ refers to the total amount of money available for use in the economy at a given period of time. (a) supply of money (b) demand of money (c) cash
42. Given that price of a Radio set in 2010 was N338, but rose to N362 in 2011. Calculate the price index of the radio. (a) 107.1% (b) 108.1% (c) 10.1%
43. Liquidity preference in the concept of demand for money is the same as ____ (a) velocity of money (b) supply of money (c) desire to hold money in cash (d) value of money
44. The determinant of the value of money include all the following factors except…….. (a) price index (b) general price level (c) supply of money (d) volume of goods and services produced
45. ___ is issued by the central Bank.  It enables the government to raise capital for ninety days. (a) treasury bills (b) bill of exchange (c) treasury certificate
46. A government treasury bill is a form of debt instrument which falls due for repayment after. (a) 3 months           (b) 9 months          (c) 2 years    (d) 5 years    (e) 10 or more years
47. Long term loans can be secured from _______ (a) commercial banks (b) discount houses  (c) development banks    (d) acceptance house
48. An inflation in which the price level rises steadily at an average rate of about 2% per annum is best described as (a) galloping (b) induced           (c) creeping (d) suppressed (e) run-away
49. Which policy is used to adjust government revenue and expenditure so as to produce a desirable effect on the economy (a) monetary (b) business (c) physical (d) fiscal.

SSS 2 Economics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C       2.A       3.C       4.D       5.C  

6.B       7.A       8.D       9.B       10.B    

11.A     12.C     13.A     14.D     15.C

16.C     17.D     18.B     19.C     20.C    

21.B     22.C     23.D     24.D     25.A

26.A     27.A     28.C     29.B     30.B    

31.A     32.B     33.A     34.B     35.B    

36.A     37.C     38.B     39.D     40.C

41.B     42.A     43.A     44.C     45.B

46.A     47.A     48.B     49.C     50.D

51.B     52.A     53.A     54.D     55.C

56.A     57.A     58.C     59.C     60.D

SECTION A THEORY

Answer three questions

1. The price of bread in 2003 was increased from 40 to 50 and the quantity bought per week by a consumer decreases from 160 loaves to 80 (a) present the above in a table (b) calculate the co-efficient of price elasticity of demand (c) what type of elasticity is this and how did you arrive at your conclusion.
2. Differentiate between income elasticity of demand and price control

b.  State their types

• Define measure of dispersion

b.  Find the range in the following data:

     12,    6,            19,    8,         24,        16,        36,        9,         40,        6,         50,        48,        12   and 10

• Explain the following with curve
• Total Utility
• Marginal utility
• Black market
• Inelastic demand
• Elastic demand

SECTION B THEORY

ANSWER THREE (3) QUESTIONS ONLY

1. A. What  is Economic System

b.         List and explain the types of Economic System

2 A. What is Imperfect market 

b.  List and explain five types of imperfect market

3. A. Define Location of Industry

b.  State five (5) factors influencing the Location of an Industry

4 a.. Explain demand and Supply of labour

b.  Write out the full meaning of the following terms:

i.          M R

II.          A R

III.         A F C

iv.         A  C

V.         A S  U U

SECTION C THEORY

Define the term supply of money, and public finance

Outline three functions of capital market.

Outline the functions of money market.

What is quantity theory of money?

List and explain the five factors affecting supply of money.

State four positive effects of inflation.

State five causes of inflation

From the quantity theory of money equation MV=PT. Assuming P=20, M=200,000 and T=20,000. Calculate the velocity of money (V)

Solution:

MV=PT

    V=PT/M

    V=20 x 20,000/200,000

    V=2.

SS2 English Studies Education Examination Question For Third Term

SENIOR TWO (2)  S.S. 2

  ENGLISH – STUDIES              3^rd TERM EXAM

OBJECTIVE PARTS:  SECTION A

From the words letter A to D, choose the words that contain the sound represented by the given phonetic symbol.

1. /i/  (a) received        (b) head (c) weapon (d) peasant
2. /e/ (a) said              (b) bred  (c) bird      (d) cried
3. /I/  (a) Monday       (b) Sin (c) Dart      (d) Dies
4. /^/ (a) palm             (b) such    (c) crawl     (d) last
5. /u:/ (a) plot             (b) who              (c) flood         (d) flute
6. /a:/ (a) lack             (b) lucky    (c) last       (d) leather
7. /u:/ (a) suit             (b) buck   (c) book      (d) cold
8. / z / (a) resumes     (b) dispense   (c) recess          (d) perspire 
9.  / j /  (a) yes            (b) yolk     (c) jerk         (d) jack
10. / u /  (a) woman      (b) woo   (c) drought    (d) noun

SECTION 2

From the word lettered A to D, choose the word that has the correct stress

1.  (a) mechanSAtion (b) mechaNIsation (c) meCHAnisation  (d) mechanisaTION
2. Examination  (b) eXAmination  (c) exaMInation  (d) examiNAtion
3. (a) glorificaTION   (b) gloriFIcation  (c) glorifiCAtion  (d) gloRIfication
4. investiGAtion  (b) INverstigation (c) invesTIgation (d) inVEStigation
5. maniFEStation (b) manifesTAtion (c) maNIfestation (d) MAnifestation
6. laBORatory  (b) LAboratory  (c) laboraTORY (d) laborAtory
7. manipuLATE  (b) Manipulate (c) maNIpulate (d) manipulaTE
8. responsibiliTY (b) RESponsibility (c) resPONsibility (d) responsiBIlity
9. SAtsifactory  (b) saTISfactory (c) satsiFACtory  (d) satisfacTORY
10. COMprehensible  (b) compreHENsible  (c) comprehenSIble  (d) comprehensiBLE

SECTION 3

From the list of words lettered A to D, choose the one that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word and that will, at the same time, correctly fill the gap in the sentences

•      The man refused to accept the offer of a job in the Rural areas; he preferred one in the _____ area (a) local (b) urban (c) township (d) municipal
• He Intentionally hid the document but his secretary ______ burnt them (a) carelessly (b) willingly (c) accidentally (d) foolishly
• The crops the farmer Planted  will be _____ in  three months’ time (a) sold (b) weeded (c) uprooted (d) harvested
• It is curious how Bayo can be so Carefree in his ways while his younger brother is so ______ (a) meticulous (b) eccentric (c) indifferent (d) active
• Personally, I Give In rather easily when it comes to arguments, but Emeka will always _____ to his opinion (a) hold in (b) hold on (c) hold up (d) hold back
• He didn’t lose the fight because of his Bravery but for his ______ (a) ignorant (b) strength (c) cowardice (d) rashness
• If you do not drive with Care you may be changed for _______ (a)recklessness (b) drunkenness (c) overspreading (d) ignorance
• Good politics Alleviate poverty whereas bad one ______ it.  (a) prolongs (b) activate (c) provoked (d) aggravate
• While we excepted it to be Gradual, the process of transition to civilian came to an ______ (a)abrupt (b) anticipated (c) unhappy (d) unpleasant
• Some people live in object Poverty, while others live in ______ (a)affluence (b) greatness (c)fame (d)peace

SECTION 4

From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that best complete each of the following sentences.

•  Matters that are confidential must not be made _______ (a) public (b) popular (c) unreasonable (d)uncertain
• One should ______ the land very well if one expects a bumper harvest. (a) water (b) dig (c) cultivate (d) clear
• The friendly match will kick ______ at 4:00p.m today as scheduled (a) up (b) on (c) of (d) off
• Our teacher is ______ to make such a mistake (a) too much intelligent (b) intelligent too much (c) much too intelligent (d) too intelligent much
• The little boy found it difficult to keep pace ______ his father (a) against (b) by (c) with (d)over
• No sooner had they arrived _______ we left the hall (a) than (b) when (c) so (d) therefore
• Anyone who wants to succeed in any Endeavour should  ______ his lazy habits (a) shake off (b) shake down (c) shake at (d) shake in
• The boys ______ football when the teacher entered the class (a) are discussing (b) were discussing (c) will be discussing (d) will discuss
• We are not bound to believe all ______ he said (a)what (b) which (c) these (d) that
• The teacher had hardly turned his back ______ the class became noisy (a)than (b) when (c) then (d) hence
• John said he had never _______ insulted in his life (a) so been (b) been so (c) being so (d) so being
• Luckily, Frank arrive just ______ time to catch the plane (a) by (b) within (c) to (d) in
• In Matamina no one is _______ the laws (a)over (b) within (c) above (d)outside
• The cook had _____ oil and so could not prepare the soup (a) little (b) small (c)some (d) much
• I asked Thomas to stand _____ for me since I could not attend the meeting (a) on (b) aside (c)in (d) by

SECTION 5

From the words lettered A to D below each of the following sentences, choose the word or group of words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word as it used in the sentence.

• Sir Focus has a Conspicuous  nose (a) prominent (b) flat (c) battered (d) pointed
• Their father is so Vigilant  that it is not possible for his children to play truant (a) intelligent (b) watchful (b) rigid (d) concerned
• The principal Endorsed my travelling documents without delay (a) corrected (b) checked (c) reviewed (d) approved
• John bled Profusely as a result of his accident (a) slowly (b) excessively (c) extremely (d)abundantly
• Maxwell usually makes Obnoxious  remarks (a) prudent (b) offensive (c) persuade (d) queer

SECTION 6

After each of the following sentences, a list of possible interpretations is given. Choose the interpretation that you consider most appropriate for each sentence.

•  The boy went scot free even though he insulted his teacher. This means that the boy was ______ (a) not punished (b) free to move about (c)expelled from the school (d) cautioned seriously

• I am given a free hand to run this business. This means that I ______ (a) am allowed to make my own decision (b) make my own appointments (c) assist the workers willingly (d) alone can choose my executives
• They vowed to win the race by hook or crook. This means that they vowed to win by ______ (a)peaceful  negotiations (b)any possible means (c)bring the other competitors (d) being honest
• Although the men were foreigners, they were given preferential treatment. This means that the men were treated _______ (a) better than others (b) with cautions (c) with respect (d) very quickly
• Our teachers, Sir Focus advised us not to go with the crowd. This means that he advised us not to ______ (a) stay too much in the crowd (b) travel with the crowd (d)have many friends (d) unduly influenced by others 

SECTION 7

From each of the words or figures of speech lettered A to D, choose the one that best suits the underlined phrase or clause.

•  The gate keeper’s monthly earning always Live from hand to mouth (a) Irony (b) Metaphor (c) Hyperbole (d) Alliteration  
• Time waits for no one. (a) personification (b) assonance (c) paradox (d)synecdoche
• Mu guest was attacked by a Mosquito in the size of a venture. (a) Hyperbole (b) Onomatopoeia (c)Simile (d) Personification
• The chief priest passed away last night. (a)Pun (b)Paradox (c)Alliteration (d) Euphemism
• Sola whispered some words into my ears.  (a)  Personification (b) Simile (c) Metaphor (d) Onomatopoeia

SECTION B THEORY

NOTE: Section one (1) is compulsory and any other question of your choice from section two (2).

SECTION 1

1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: page 192. (New concept Eng. Lang. textbook for S. S. 2).                                                                                                                       

COMPREHENSION PASSAGE

THE TREASURE

                            The next morning we began work early because moving this great mass of gold nearly a mile by land to the beach, and three miles by boat to the Hispaniola, was a huge task for a small a number of workmen. The three fellows for so many a numbers of workmen. The three fellows still wandering about on the inland did not greatly trouble us; a single watcher on the hill was enough to guard against any sudden attack.

                            Gray and Ben Gunn rowed the boat to and from the ship, while the rest carried the treasure to the beach. As I was not big enough to carry heavy loads, I was kept busy all days in the cave, packing the money into bread bags.

                            It was a strange collection of money – English, French, Spanish, and Portuguese – and on the pieces were all the kings of Europe for the last hundred years. There were strange pieces from East, round pieces, square pieces, and pieces with holes through them as if to wear round your neck. Every kind of money in the world must, I have found a place. And in number they were like autumn leaves, so that my back was weary of bending and my fingers with picking them up. Day after day, this work went on. At last – I think it was on the third night – the doctor and I were walking on the hill, when the wind brought us a noise of singing. Then there was silence.  ‘Heaven forgive them’ said the doctor, ‘it’s the pirates!’ All drunk, Sir, came the voice of silver from behind us. That evening we discussed what we should do with them, and decided that we must leave them on the island. We left a good supply of powder and shot, food and clothes. After seeing to this, we went on board and set sail. We had so few men that everyone on the board had to help. The captain lay on a bed giving his orders. We sailed to the nearest port in South America because we could not risk the voyage home without more men.  It was sundown when we sailed into the harbour. The doctor and Mr. Trelawney took me on shore with them. When we came back to the Hispaniola, we found Ben Gunn on board alone. Silver had gone. But that was not all. The sea cook had not gone empty – handed. He had cut through into the place where the treasure lay and had removed one of the bags of money worth, perhaps, three or four hundred pounds, to help him on his further wanderings. I think we were all placed to get rid of him at the price. Well, to make a long story short, we got some men on board and made a good voyage home. Only five men of those who had sailed return with her. ‘Drink and the devil had done for the rest’.  All of us had a good share of the treasure and used it wisely or foolishly, according to our natures. Captain Smollett is now retired from the sea. Gray is now captained part – owner of a fine ship. Ben Gunn got a thousand pounds, which he spent or lost in three weeks or, to be more exact, in nineteen days – he was back, begging, on the twentieth. Then Mr. Trelawney made him a gatekeeper – just as he had feared on the island. He is also a great singer in the village church.

                            Of Long John Silver we have heard no more. Nothing would make me go back again to that cursed island, and the worst dreams that I ever have are when I hear the waves beating on its coasts, or leap up in bed, with the sharp voice of Captain Flint still ringing in my ears: ‘Pieces of eight! Pieces of eight!’

COMPREHENSION QUESTIONS

1. Why was it difficult to move the gold?
2. What did the writer mean by ‘a strange collection of money’?
3. ‘…… who had sailed return with her.’ Who or what is referred to as her in the passage?
4. ‘Heaven forgive them.’ Who were prayed for here?
5. What reason did Silver cite for the singing?
6. ‘……… they were like autumn leaves,…….’   i. What figure of speech is contained in the expression above?    ii. Why do you think so? 
7.     ‘When we came back to the Hispaniola,……’  i.  What grammatical name is given to this expression as it is used in the passage?   ii. What is its function?
8. For each of the following words, find another words or phrase that means the same and can replace it as it is used in the passage.

        i.     Task

       ii.      Attack

       iii.     Weary

       iv.     Orders

       v.       Shore

       vi.       Wanderings

       vii.      Natures          

SECTION 2

• Write a letter to your Uncle / Aunt in another state telling him / her about your new school.          (10 marks). 
• Write an argumentative essay “Debate” on the topic: “Military rule is better than Civilian rule” 

Male: Oppose the motion

Female: Support the motion

To be more,  Is to  Know more! 

SECTION B – ENGLISH

1. _____ is the correct use of the capital letters, full stop, comma and questions marks (a) exclamation (b) punctuation (c) pronunciation
2. ____ is used for shortened words and to show ownership (a) column (b) semi-colon (c) apostrophe
3. ____ are the words people used generally when talking about a particular subject or human activity (a) career (b) register (c) record
4. The _____ mark is used at the end to show an expressions of feelings (a) exclamation (b) punctuation (c) passion
5. Which of these is NOT features of a formal letter? (a) two address (b) one address (c) closure
6. The ___ tone represents the pitch falls (a) rising (b) falling (c) average
7. Which one of the following words is NOT an examples or types of register? (a) art (b) agriculture (c) country
8. Which of these words is NOT associated with environment (a) pollution (b) disposal (c) election
9. ____ involves a pair of lines that end with the same sequence or sound or verse (a) serve (b) rhyme (c) chorus
10. The most important tenses are the present, the past and the _____(a) past participle (b) past perfect (c) present perfect

SECTION B: SPEECH WORK

1. The _____ tones rises from low pitch slowly until it gets to the highest level (a) falling (b) rising (c) tone
2. Rhymes is divided into peak and____(a) codo (b) code (c) codec
3. A _____consonant sound must go with another voiceless consonant (a) voice (b) voiceless (c) voices
4. _____is a long vowel sound (a) port (b) gun (c) pull
5. ___ is a short vowel sound (a) bird (b) said (c) part
6. ‘Can I see you, please? Is an example of making _____ (a) controversial (b) request (c) command
7. ‘Really” expresses ____ (a) surprise (b) controversial (c) request
8. Ohh , Has he? Is an example of ___ tone (a) falling (b) rising (c) tone
9. Example of  /tʃ/ is ___(a) brush (b) church (c) fish
10. Example of  /dʒ/ is___ (a) capture (b) jump (c) run

SECTION B: VOCABULARY WORDS

• Ministers and other important persons in public life speak to journalist at a press ____  A. assembly B. conference C. opinion poll D. meeting
• A report written word for word is known as ____ A. verbatim B. copy right C. verbose D. news item
•  A newspaper with small pages (usually half the size of those in larger papers) is called ___(a) column (b) tabloid (c) newspaper
• The title of a newspaper or article printed in large letters especially at the top is ____ (a) headline (b) byline (c) newsreel
• A journalist is known as ____(a) press conference (b) press man (c) press journal
• The work of collecting and writing news, stories for newspapers, magazines, radio is ____(a) journal (b) press man (c) journalism
• A short film of news that was shown in the past in cinemas/movie theaters is ____(a) newsreel (b) byline (c) opinion poll
• A person, machine or company that prepares a book etc. for printing is _(a) editor (b) typesetter (c) news
• The environmental sanitation ins Lagos is on every _____(a) Friday (b) Wednesday (c) Thursday
• Another name for environment is not surrounding? (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe (d) I don’t know

LEXIS AND STRUCTURES- Compulsory

• The shortened form of “There are” is___ (a) They’re (b) There’are (c) There’re
• The shortened forms of “will not” is___(a) Will’nt (b) Will’nt (c) won’t
• This is the girl_____ I spoke to on Monday. (a) whose (b) whom (c) who
• Here is the book____ our teacher recommended (a) whose (b) which (c) whom
• Which of these is NOT an examples of Phrasal verb (a) of that (b) make out (b) agree with
• Supervision has ___syllables (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3
• Which word rhyme with ‘detain”  (a) detail (b) claim (c) obtain
• Ease rhyme with _(a) seize (b) peace (c) asks
• They did not greet us. They is __(a) object (b) subject (c) verb 
• ______ point to or is related to a noun or pronoun going before (a) personal pronoun (b) relative pronoun (c) interrogative pronoun

COMPOSITION: Write a letter to the General Manager of a book shop, complaining about some shortcomings of a branch located in your neighbourhood. It should be about 400 words long.

SUMMARY- Choose 1 out 2

1. Summarize in 5 sentences for each those symptoms of COVID-19

2. Summarize in 3 sentences why herdsmen move their cattle from one place to another e.g. food and shelter

COMPREHENSION

1. Write 2 ways of reading to grasps main point

2. Write 2 ways of reading for implied meaning

3. Write 2 ways of reading for critical evaluation

4. Write a short poem on love

5. Write 5 words associated with technology

SSS 2 English Studies Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.B       2.C       3.B       4.A       5.B   6.B  7.C   8.C   9.B

10.B     11.B     12.A     13.B     14.A     15.B     16.B   17.A

18.B     19.B     20.B     21.B     22.A     23.B     24.A   25.B

26.C     27.A     28.B     29.C     30.B     31.C     32.C   33.B

34.B     35.A     36.B     37.C     38.A     39.B     40.B

SS2 Financial Accounting Examination Question For Third Term

      SENIOR CLASS TWO ( S.S.S. 2)

FINANCIAL – ACCOUNTING  3^RD TERM EXAM

SECTION A: OBJECTIVES

1. …………. Account are accounts prepared to ascertain the cost of goods manufactured during the financial year    (a).   protection       (b).    trading      (c).    manufacturing      (d).    profit and loss
2. Cost of production is the total expenditure incurred in the production of output      (a)  True   (b)   False
3. The following are errors the trial balance cannot disclose except   (a).  errors of principle    (b).    errors of omission   (c).   errors of control   (d).   compensating errors
4. Control account is divided into …………….  (a).  4  (b).    2     (c).    3     (d).   10
5. …………….. are cost that can be traced to a particular production unit    (a).   direct labour/cost    (b).    factory overheads     (c).    prime cost    (d).   cost of production
6. Sales account must have credit balance   (a) True   (b)   False
7. Examples of direct costs consumed during production processes are the following except   (a).   upkeep of factory building    (b).   factory rent and rates    (c).  indirect wages    (d).  direct expenses
8. ……………… is an account used to record the difference on a trial balance temporarily until the errors are deleted and corrected    (a).   accounting errors    (b).   control account    (c).  suspense account    (d).    manufacturing account
9. One of these is not a type of partner   (a).   active    (b).  sleeping   (c).  nominal   (d).  working
10. The following are reasons for central account except   (a).  they save time   (b).   they are used to detect missing figures   (c).  to ascertain the cost of production      (d).    fraud becomes difficult
11. One of these is not accounting requirement under partnership agreement   (a).  rate of interest on capital    (b).   no interest on capital    (c).   division of profits and losses   (d).   the rate of interest on drawings
12. …………. Is simply a mistake made in the preparation of accounts   (a).  trial balance    (b).   wrong entry    (c).     errors    (d).   all of the above
13. ………….. must be signed by the partners in the presence of a lawyer unit partnership    (a).    papers   (b). will     (c).    agreement     (d).    document
14. When errors affect the trial balance, it must not pass through the suspense account    (a) True (b)    False
15. ………… partner only contributes his name to the formation of the business and nothing more   (a).   sleeping    ((b).   limited    (c).   active    (d).   normal
16. …………. Errors is when the Dr and Cr sides may be overcast or under cast by the same amount    (a).    commission    (b).     original entry        (c).   omission    (d).  compensating
17.  ……………. Control account is referred to as total debtors control account   (a).  purchase ledger    (b).   trading     (c).   profit and loss    (d).       sales ledger
18. ……………. Is where a wrong amount is entered on the debit and credit sides   (a).    errors of omission    (b)   errors of original entry     (c).    errors of commission     (d).    transposition errors
19. …………….. is the expenditure incurred on raw materials which can be traced to a particular production unit   (a).   factory overhead     (b).   direct materials    (c)    prime cost     (d).    direct labour
20. The following must be followed closely when there are errors in the account except   (a).    identify the type of error    (b).    interprets the errors in the ledger     (c).    identify sales of goods    (d).   identify the two account
21. The following accounts must be prepared in partnership accounting except   (a).   current and capital    (b).   balance sheet     (c).    appropriation account        (d).   accounting entries
22. ………….. is an extension of the trading account   (a).    work in progress    (b).   non-manufacturing cost     (c).    manufacturing account       (d).   accounting entries
23. The following are errors the trial balance can disclose except    (a)   the trial balance is incorrectly totaled    (b).   errors of principle      (c).      items can be mis posted to the account       (d).    an item can be omitted from the trial balance
24. Partnership can be formed by two to twenty persons   (a)  True (b) False
25. According to section 1 of the partnership act …………  (a).   1980    (b).   1890    (c).   1880    (d).    1960
26. ……….. is referred to as the total creditors controlling account   (a).  self balancing ledger    (b).   sales ledger    (c).   purchase ledger     (d).   all of the above 
27. …………. Is the relationship which subsists between persons carrying on a business in common with a view of profit   (a).   organization   (b).  co-operation    (c).    partnership   (d).   relationship
28. ………….. is the partly finished goods or incomplete work    (a).   cost of raw materials  (b).   work in progress   (c).   direct labour      (d).    factory overhead
29. The guiding rules under partnership  agreement will be contained in a written agreement known as   (a).   partnership  will  (b).   partnership deeds   (c).   partnership  document    (d).    partnership agreement
30. ………….. errors is when an item is posted to the wrong side of the account   (a).  complete reversal of entity    (b).    omission    (c). transposition    (d).   compensating
31. Debtors control account reveals (a) debtors (b) creditors (c) cash received (d)sales
32. In incomplete records creditors control account is prepared to reveal (a) sundry creditors (b) purchases (c) cash paid to creditors (d) discount received
33. In adjustment accounts prepaid rent A/C should have _______ balance (a) credit (b) Debit (c) both debit and credit  (d) either debit or credits
34. In adjusting for final account, accrued wages should have ______ balance (a) debit (b) credit (c) debit and credit (d) credit and  debited
35. Calculation of provisions for doubtful debts, depreciation, etc is done in step ____ in other to prepare P&L a/c and balance sheet from incomplete records  (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 6
36. Which of the following is NOT a source of revenue to a non-profits-making organization? (a) Donation (b) Entry fee (c) fine (d) Provision
37. Subscriptions prepaid is (a) current capital (b) current liabilities (c) fixed asset (d) working capital
38. Subscription outstanding is (a) current asset (b) current liabilities (c) working capital (d) fixed asset
39. The capital of a non-profit organization is referred to as (a) Net profit (b) gross profit (c) accumulated fund (d) net deficiency
40. For a non-profit-making organization the equivalent of a profit and loss account in a profit-making business concern is (a) trading account (b) receipt and payment (c) accumulated fund (d) income and expenditure account
41. Life subscription A/C should have a (a) debit balance (b) credit balance (c) neutral balance (d) none of the above
42. Club sports equipment A/C should have a balance (a) credit (b) debit (c) debit and credit (d) neutral
43. Sales of a equipment to members is a form of (a) asset (b) trading (c) gambling (d) debating
44. Subscriptions accrued is an/a_______ (a) asset (b) liabilities (c) accumulated fund (d) working capital
45. Repair of club equipment is a ______ expenditure (a) revenue (b) capital (c) fixed (d) floating
46. Where there is no partnership agreement the Partnership Act 1890 section _______ should be applied (a) 20  (b) 25  (c) 24  (d) 34
47. Which of the following is not true where there is no laid down an agreement for the partnership? (a) Profits and losses to be shared equally (b) interest in drawings at rate of 5% per annum (c) No interest in capital (d) Members of the public can invest in the shares of the business.
48. Which of the following increases the profit of a partnership? (a) Drawings (b) Interest on capital  (c) Interest on drawings  (d) Partnership salary
49. Which of the following statements is NOT true? When (a) we keep fixed capital accounts for partners we open their current accounts  (b) losses are made they are to be shared by the partners (c) we keep floating capital account no current account is kept  (d) A partnership can exist forever.
50. The capital contribution by the partners is treated in the___account? (a) current (b) capital (c) trading (d) balance sheet
51. Williams and Jacob are in partnership but there is no partnership agreement. The capital contributed are N60,000 and N40,000 respectively. Profit for the year is N20,000. Interest on capital is 10%. If Williams introduces cash of N10,000 by way of loan to the partnership, how much interest will he earn per annum on the loan? (a) N2,000 (b) N1,500 (c) 1,000 (d) 500
52. Goodwill is__(a) Fixed Asset (b) Current Asset (c) Current Liability (d) Intangible Asset
53. Goodwill can be classified into (a) Liquid (b) tangible (c) intangible (d) Inherent and purchased
54. _________ A/c is credited with increase in values of assets (a) goodwill (b) capital (c) revaluation (d) current
55. For a reduction in the value of an asset ___ the asset A/c and debit Revaluation A/c (a) debit (b) credit (c) deduct (d) Add
56. The double entry for discount received from creditors on dissolution is (a) Cr. creditor A/c Dr. Cash A/c (b) Cr. Creditors A/c, Dr. Cash (c) Cr. realization A/c; Dr. Creditors  (d) Dr. Bank, Cr. Capital A/c
57. Loss on an asset realized is debited to realization A/c and credited to ________ A/c (a) Cash (b) Asset  (c) Realization  (d) Revaluation
58. Assets taken over by partners on dissolution are credited to realization A/c and debited to __________ (a) asset A/c (b) cash A/c  (c) Capital A/c  (d) all of the above
59. Discount allowed is debited to ____ A/c (a) capital  (b) realization  (c) current (d) Profit and Loss account
60. For goodwill on dissolution debit _________ A/c and credit _________ A/c respectively (a) cash and capital (b) goodwill and realization  (c) realization and goodwill  (d) capital and cash

SSS 2 Financial Accounting Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C      2.A      3.C      4.B      5.A  

6.A      7.C      8.C      9.B      10.C   

11.D    12.A    13.C    14.A    15.D

16.D    17.D    18.A    19.D    20.C   

21.B    22.C    23.B    24.A    25.B

26.D    27.C    28.B    29.B    30.A   

31.A    32.B   33.C    34.D    35.D   

36.D    37.B    38.A    39.C    40.B

41.B    42.B    43.A    44.B    45.B

46.C    47.B    48.B    49.A    50.B

51.D    52.B    53.C    54.C    55.A

56.A    57.C    58.B    59.D    60.B

SECTION A THEORY

No One Is Compulsory

1. Purchase of goods from Ayo N76 was entered in the account as N 67. Correct this account
2. Differentiate between accounting errors and suspense account

ii.             State five errors the trial balance cannot disclose

• What is manufacturing account

ii.            State and explain five terminologies in manufacturing account

• Define partnership agreement

ii.             State five of its accounting requirements

• What is control account

State and explain types of partner

SECTION B THEORY

1a. List and explain the six steps necessary to prepare a P&L a/c and balance sheet from incomplete records.

1b. Prepare debtors and creditors control accounts formats and highlight what each of them reveals.

1c. State three characteristics of  single entry accounting system

2a. What is the purpose of the opening statement of affairs incomplete records?

2b. What is the debtors’ control account prepared to reveal?

2c. List and explain five special characteristics of the accounts of non-profit-making organizations

3a. List eight errors that will affect the agreement of the trial balance

3b. Give five reasons for preparing departmental accounts

3c. List five methods of providing for depreciation of fixed assets

3d. State five differences between cash discount and trade discount

4a. Define Cheque

4b. State the means of making payments

4a. Write short notes on (a) annual subscription (b) life subscriptions (c) subscription prepaid (d) subscription accrued

5a. Differentiate between life membership subscriptions and annual subscription of a non-profit-making organization.

5b. State five uses of a Control Account

5c. Obi and Oba are partners in a firm of chartered accountants with initial capital contributions of N50,000 and N40,000 respectively which are to be kept fixed in the partnership books. You are required to show the cash account, partners’ capital accounts and balance sheet extracts.

Solution

6a. Define Partnership

6b. List seven items that should be contained in a partnership deed

6c. Explain the term Goodwill.

6d. List five circumstances that can give rise to the valuation of goodwill in partnership accounts

SS2 Further Maths Examination Question For Third Term

SENIOR TWO (2)  S.S. 2

FURTHER – MATHEMATICS   3^RD TERM EXAM

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

1. The parabola is a locus of points, equidistant from a given point is called the_____(a) Focus (b) directrix (c) direct
2. The parabola is a locus of points, equidistant from a given line is called the_____(a) Focus (b) directrix (c) direct 
3. Find the focus and directrix  of the parabola y2 = 16x (a) F=3,0 , x = +4 (b) F=7,0 , x = -14 (c) F=4,0 , x = -4
4. Find the equation of the tangent to a parabola  y2 = 12x at point (3,6) ___is the equation of the tangent. (a)  y + 2x +2 =1 (b) y + 2x +2 =0 (c) y + 2x +4 =0
5. The ­­­­­_______ is the locus of a point P, moving in a plane such that the distance from two fixed points called the foci have a constant difference (a) parabola (b) hyperbola (c) perpendicular
6. Find the vertices of the Hyperbola 25×2 – 16y2 = 400 (a) V1(4,0)  and V2(-4,0) (b) V1(4,4)  and V2(-4,6) (c) V1(4,3)  and V2(-4,9)
7. Find the foci of the Hyperbola 25×2 – 16y2 = 400 (a) F() and F() (b) F() and F() (c) F() and F()
8. A ___ general may be defined as the locus of a moving point P, such that its distance fixed Point  its distance from a fixed line (a) parabola (b) hyperbola (c) conic
9. This constant  ratio is called the___of the conic denoted by e. (a) electricity (b) eccentricity (c) elementary
10. The coordinates of the centre of a circle is (-2, 3). If its area is 25πcm2, find its equation.  (a) x2+y2−4x−6y−12=0 (b) x2+y2−4x+6y−12=0 (c) x2+y2+4x+6y−12=0 (d) x2+y2+4x−6y−12=0
11. Find the equation of a circle with centre (2, -3) and radius 2 units. A. x2+y2−4x+6y+9=0. B. x2+y2+4x−6y−9=0. C. x2+y2+4x+6y−9=0.
12.  ______ could also be defined as the ratio of required outcome to the total outcome (a) range (b) probability (c) inequality
13. If two fair dice are tossed together. What is the probability that the total score will be ten? (a) ½ (b) 1/12 (c) 1/14
14. A class consists of 8 men and 7 ladies. Two students were selected randomly to represent the class in a debate. Find the probability that two students selected are (a) both ladies (b) both men A. 1/5, 4/15 B. 1/5 , 15/4 C. ¼, ¼
15.  _____ is defined as the number of arranged of objects. The different orders of arrangement are important (a) Probability (b) permutation (c) hyperbola
16. Under permutation, Simplify this  A. 5! (a) 130 (b) 140 (c) 120
17. Under permutation , Simplify this    (a) 53 (b) 35 (c) 25
18. Which of the following is not a type of permutation? (a) cyclic (b) conditional (c) contemporary
19. Using Pascal’s triangle, expand and simplify completely: (2x + 3y)4  A. 16×4 + 96x3y + 216x2y2 + 216xy3 + 81y4  B. 19×4 + 96x3y + 216x2y2 + 216xy3 + 88y4 C. 17×4 + 94x3y + 216x2y2 + 216xy3 + 81y4
20. Using Pascal’s triangle, simplify, correct to 5 decimal places (1.01)4  (a) 1.04060 (5 d.p) (b) 1.4060 (5 d.p) (c) 1.04077 (5 d.p)
21. If the point of application of a force is displaced, the force is said to do___(a) work (b) constant (c) force
22. ____ is the rate at which work is being done (a) work (b) power (c) force
23. The work done in bringing a particle of mass m from rest to a velocity v is called the___ (a) velocity 9b) heat energy (c) kinetic energy
24. A_____ is an object launched into the air and allowed to move on its own freely under gravity (a) probability (b) projectile (c) energy force
25. A stone is thrown vertically upwards from the front with a velocity of 50m/s, Calculate  The maximum height reached (a) 124m (b) 126m (c) 125m
26. _____ is the idle resources of any organization or enterprise. It is the physical stock of goods that are kept for future use. (a) stock (b) inventory (c) purchase
27. ___ is when you keep some stock of goods to meet the uncertainty demand and supply (a) buffer inventory (b) anticipatory inventory (c) inventory
28. _____ denote the horizontal projectile motion or the horizontal component of displacement of the projectile motion (a) y (b) x (c) yx
29. _____ denote the vertical projectile motion or the vertical component of displacement of the projectile motion (a) y (b) x (c) yx
30. The distance from the starting point on the ground to the landing point on the ground is called the range of the____ (a) projectile (b) trajectory (c) probability
31. ____is the formular for quadratic equation. (a) abx2 + bx + c = 0 (b) ax2 + bx + c = 0 (c) ax2 + bx + c =1
32. The quadratic equation whose root -1 and 8  is _____(a) x2 – 7x – 8 = 0 (b) x2 – 7x – 8 = 1  (b) x2 + 7x + 8 = 1
33. Everybody continues in its state of rest, or of uniform motion in a straight line, unless it is compelled to change that state by external impressed forces. (a)first law (b)second law (c)third law
34. Action and reaction are equal and opposite. (a)first law (b)second law (c)third law
35. the rate of change of momentum of a body is proportional to the applied force and is in the direction of the force.  (a)first law (b)second law (c)third law
36. A true statement is said to have a truth value T, while a false statement is said to have a truth value F. (a) maybe (b) Yes (c) No
37. In the expansion of  ( 2x + 3y )4  what is the coefficient of  y4   a) 16  b) 81  c) 216  d) 96
38. How many terms are in the expansion  of  ( 1 – 4x ) 5  a) 3  b) 5  c) 6  d) 8
39.  In the expansion of  (x + y)5 what is the coefficient of  x3y2  a) 20  b) 30  c) 40 d) 50
40.  A boy sits on a log. The mass of the log is 8 kg and the weight of the boy is 55N. What is the reaction of the ground on the log on which the boy is sitting? (Take g= 9.8 )  (a) 133.4N   (b) 134.4N  (c) 135.4N (d) 136.4N
41. Find the derivative of 2x³ – 5x² + 2 (a)6x³-10x²   (b)6x²-10x   (a)6x²-10x³   (a)6x²-10x²
42. Find the scale product of the following vectors 9i -2j + k and I – 3j -4k (a)11 (b)12 (c)13 (d)14
43. Find the angle between the vectors pp=2i – 2j + k and q=12i +4j – 3k  (a)11 (b)12 (c)13 (d)14
44. ) Law of inertia is also known as Newton”s —– Law of motion    a)  2^nd  b) 1^st  c) 3^rd  d) 4^th
45. The relationship between force and acceleration of a body in motion can be attributed to  Newton”s  ——–  Law of motion    a) 1^st  b) 2^nd  c) 3^rd  d) 4^th
46. If α≠ β, determine whether or not α + β  is symmetric (a) true (b) false
47. If α≠ β, determine whether or not 3α +2β is symmetric (a) True (b) false
48. Find the equation of the tangent and the normal to the curve y = 2×3 – x2 + 3x + 1 at the point x = 1. ____(a) 13y + 15x – 14 = 0 (b) 13y + 15x – 41 = 0
49. A curved is defined by the gradient function at any point on the curve  _____(a)  false (b) maybe (c) true
50. The straight line, perpendicular to the tangent at the point of contact of the tangent to the curve is called the ____to the curve. (a) Normal (b) Abnormal (c) Exceptional
51. Consider the expressions formed from the sum of integral non negative powers of a variable x taken together with some numerical constants. Such expressions are called______(a) tangent (b) numerical constant (c) Polynomials
52. Given that P1(x) = 7×3 – 4×2 + 3x + 4; P2(x) = 5×2 + 6x + 1 and P3(x) = 4×3 + 2x – 3. What is the addition of this polynomials P1(x) + P2(x)?___(a) 7×3 + x2 + 9x + 3 (b) 7×3 + x2 + 9x + 5
53.  Given that P1(x) = 7×3 – 4×2 + 3x + 4; P2(x) = 5×2 + 6x + 1 and P3(x) = 4×3 + 2x – 3. What is the addition of this polynomials P1(x) – P2(x)? ____(a)  7×3 – 9×2 – 3x + 3 (b) 7×3 – 9×2 – 3x
54. The product of two polynomials of degrees m and n is another polynomial of degree _______(a) m + n 1(b) mm + mn (c) m + n
55. The polynomial f(x) = 2×3 – 3×2 + 4x – 1 and find the remainders when f(x) is divided by (c) x – 3. the remainder is ______(a) 37 (b) 38 (c) 33
56. In a complete factorised form, f(x) can be written in the form of ____(a) f(x) = (x ± p)(x ± r) (b) f(x) = (x ± p)(x ± rs)
57. A cubical parabola has____ shapes depending on whether a > 0 or a < 0. (a) 3 (b) 1 (c) 2
58. Obtain the first four terms of the explanation of (2 +   x)⁸in ascending powers of x. hence, find the value of (2.005)⁸, correct to five significant figures.  (a) 269.17 (b) 267.17 (c) 263.17 (d) 261.17
59. Use tables to evaluate the sin 143◦ in the second quadrant __ (a) 0.6018 (b) 0.60118 (c) 0.60181
60. Use tables to evaluate the cos 115 in the second quadrant ___(a) -0.42226 (b) -0.4222 (c) -0.4226

SSS 2 Further Maths Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.A      2.B      3.C      4.B      5.B 

6.A      7.A      8.C      9.B      10.D   

11.A    12.B    13.B    14.A    15.B   

16.C   17.B    18.C    19.A    20.A

21.A    22.B    23.C    24.B   25.C

26.B    27.A    28.B    29.A    30.B

31.C    32.A     33.A    34.C      35.B

36. B    37.B     38.C    39. C     40.A

41 B      42.A     43.C   44.  B   45.B

46. A   47. B       48.B   49. A   50.A

51.C     52.A        53.A    54.B    55.A

56.A   57. B     58.    D     59.B   60.C

THEORY

1a. Write down the equation of the parabola y2- 4y-12x+40 = 0 , in its canonical form and hence find  (i) the vertex;   (ii) the focus;  (iii)  the directrix of the parabola

SOLUTION

y2- 4y-12x + 40 = 0

y2- 4y-+4-12x+40 = 0+4 …. (completing the square)

y2- 4y+4 =  12x – 36 …… (rearranging)

     (y – 2)2 = 12(x-3) …… (factorising)

But (y – y1)2 = 12(x-x1)

   i) hence vertex (x1,y1) = (3,2)

   ii) since 4a = 12,   a = 3  then the focus  (x1+a,y1) = (3+3,2) = (6,2)

  iii)the equation of the directrix is x = 3-3 ie x=0

note that the thedirectrix is of equal but opposite distance from the vertex with thefocus

this means the distance between the focus and the vertex = the distance between the directrixand the vertex

1b. Find the equation of the tangent  and normal to a parabola  (i) y2 = 12x at point (3,6)

ii) y2 = 16x at point (1, -4)

SOLUTION

ii)y2 = 16x , compare with y2 = 4ax, thus a= 4

equation of tangent

 =  ‘    =

Thus

y + 2x +2 =0  is the equation of the tangent

equation of the normal

 = –  ,  = –

Thus

2y –x + 9 = 0 is the equation of the normal

2..  Find the foci and four vertices  of the ellipse     +    = 1

3. Write down the equation of the ellipse 25×2+ 4y2-50x-16y-59 = 0 in the canonical form and

hence find

    i) the coordinates of the centre of the ellipse

   ii) the four vertices of the ellipse

  iii) the two foci of the ellipse

SOLUTION

1.  +    = 1

     Since a>b , then

 +    =   +

By inspection,

a2=25  and b2=9  thus a=+5 or -5 , b= +3 or -3 and c = + or –

c2=a2-b2 , c= +4 0r -4

i)  the foci f(0,c) = f1(0,4)  and f2(0,-4)

ii) the vertices V(a,0) = V1(3,0) and V2(-3,0)

the  co-vertices V(0,b) = V3(o,5) and V4(o,-5)

2.         25×2+ 4y2-50x-16y-59 = 0

            25×2-50x + 4y2-16y = 59

25(x2-2x +1-1)+ 4(y2-16y+4-4) = 59

25(x2-2x +1) -25+ 4(y2-16y+4)-16 = 59

    25(x2-2x +1) + 4(y2-4y+4) = 100

                        25(x-1)2+ 4(y-2)2   = 100  

                         + = 1        

                          But          +   = 1

            By inspection,a = +5 or -5  and b = +2 or -2

  i)  the coordinates of centre = (1,2)

 ii)  the vertices of the vertical axis are

V(0+x1,a+y1 )   = V1(1,7)

V(0+x1,-a+y1 )  = V2(1,-3)

vertices of the vertical axis are

V(b+x1 , 0 + y1) = V3(3,2)

V(-b+x1 , 0+y1) = V4(-1,2)

iii) the two foci are

F(0+x1,c+y1 )   =    F1(1 ,  +2)

F(0+x1,-c+y1 )  =    F1(1 ,  +2)

4. Find the equation of the circumcircle of the triangle whose vertices are A (2,3) B (5,4) and C (3,7)

SOLUTION:

The equation of the circle x2 + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0

22 + 32 + 4g + 6f + c = 0

52 + 42 + 10g + 8f + c = 0

32 + 72 + 6f + 14f + c = 0

Simplify the 3 equations

f = – 107 / 22

g = – 67 / 22

c = – 312 / 11

Hence, the equation of the circle is

x2 + y2 + 2  x + 2  y +    = 0

11×2 + 11y2 – 67x – 107y + 312 = 0

a = 3, b = -2, r2 = 16,

r =   = 4

hence the centre is (3, -2) and the radius is 4 unit

1. 5. From a box containing 2 red,6 white and 5 black balls, a ball is randomly selected . What is the Probability that the selected ball is (i) black (ii) white (iii) not black?

Solution:

   Sample space = 2+ 6 + 5 = 13

                                       n(red) = 2,           n(white) = 6,    n(black) = 5

• Prob. (black) = 5/13                       (ii)  Prob. (white) = 6/13
• Prob. (not black) = 1 – prob. (black)
•                             = 1 – 5/13 = 8/13

6. In a single throw of two fair coins. Find the probability that :  (i) two tails appear (ii) one head one tail appear (iii) two heads appear (iv) one tail one head in that order.

SOLUTION:

            S= {HH, HT, TH, TT} = 4

• Pr (two tails) = {TT} = ¼
• Pr (=one head one tail) = {HT, TH} = 2/4 = 1/2
• Pr (two heads) = {HH} = ¼
• Pr (1 head 1 tail in that order) = (HT) = 1/4

7. Two gubernational aspirants A and B in two different states of Nigeria have probabilities 2/9 and 4/11 respectively of winning in an impending election. Fid the probability that: (a) both of them win in their respective states; (b) both of them lose in their respective states; (c) at least one of them wins in his state.

Solution:

Aspirants:                            A                                                          B

Pr (A wins) + pr (A losing) = 1,                   Pr(Bwins) + Pr(B losing) = 1

   Pr (A losing) = 1 – 2/9                              Pr (B losing) = 1- 4/11

                                       =7/9                                                                     7/11    

• Pr(both winning) =2/9 x 4/11

                                          = 8 /99

• Pr(both winning) = 7/9 x 7/11 = 49/99
• Pr (at least one wins) = Pr (A wins & B loses) or Pr(Bwins&Aloses) or Pr (A wins & B wins)

                                      = (2/9 x 7/11) + (4/11 x 7/9) + (2/9 x 4/11)

                                      = 11/99 + 28/99 + 8/99 = 50/99.

1. 8.. Using permutation to solve this, Find the number of ways of arranging the letters of the word MACHINE

SOLUTION:

There are seven different letters in the word MACHINE, therefore the number of permutation is 7!  = 7x6x5x4x3x2x1       = 5040 ways

• Simplify (n + 1)!    =     (n+1)n!   = n+1

(n-1)!                                       (n-1)n! n-1

9.. Evaluate:                        (a)  8p3                (b) 11p9

SOLUTION:

• 8P3 =      =         =          = 8x7x6 = 336
• 11P9=    =   11x0x9x8x7x6x5x4x3x2!    =    19958400
• In how many ways can three people be seated on eight seats in a row?

Solution:

1st seat can be occupied by any of the 8 = 8 ways

2nd seat can be occupied in 6 ways

Hence, the number of ways = 8x7x6 = 336 ways

Alternatively, n = 8, r = 3

nPr =   =      =          = 8x7x6 = 336 ways

10.. What is the acceleration at the time when the car is moving up the inclined plane at 40ms-1? (Take g= 10ms-2)                                                          

Solution

Let P be the power developed by the car.

Let W be the work done.

Let F be the tractive force of the car

P =  (w)

= (f)

A tennis ball is projected horizontally from the top of a vertical cliff 50m high with a velocity of 10ms-1.

Find:

(a)    The time to reach the ground.

(b)   The vertical component of the velocity when the ball hits the ground.

(c)    The distance from the foot of the cliff where the ball hits the ground.

SOLUTION

(a) The ball falls vertically under the influence of gravity. Its vertical motion is independent of the horizontal motion.

Initial vertical velocity = 0, acceleration a = g, h = 50m

Recall from equations of motion, S = ut + ½at2

h = ut + ½gt2

50 = 0 + ½ x 10 x t2

50 = 5 t2

t2 = 10

t =

t = 3.16s.

(b)   Let v be the vertical component of the velocity when the stone hits the ground.

From equations of motion, v = u + at.

v = u + gt

v = 0 + 10 x 3.16

v = 31.6ms-1.

(c)    Let s be the distance from the foot of the cliff where the ball hits the ground. The initial horizontal velocity is 10ms-1 and not affected by vertical acceleration therefore, a = 0.

From equations of motion, S = ut + ½at2

S = ut + 0 (since a = 0)

S = 10 x 3.16

S = 31.6m.

11. (a) Define Inventory  (b) List 3 types of inventory and explain 2  (c) Write the full meaning of (I) DAV (II) TL (III) DL

12. Using Pascal’s riangle, expand and simplify completely: (2x + 3y)⁴

Solution:

(2x + 3y)⁴ = (2x)⁴ + 4(2x)³ (3y) + 6(2x)²(3y)² + 4(2x)(3y)³ + (3y)⁴

= 16x⁴ + 96x³y + 216x²y² + 216xy³ + 81y⁴

13. Using pascal’s triangle, the coefficients of (x + y)⁵are: 1,5,10,10,5,1.

Therefore (x – 2y)⁵     = x⁵ + 5x⁴(-2y) + 10x³(-2y)² + 10x²(-2y)³ + 5x(-2y)⁴ + (-2y)⁵

                                                = x⁵ – 10x⁴y + 40x³y² – 80x²y³ + 80xy⁴ – 32y⁵

14. Using Pascal’s triangle, simplify, correct to 5 decimal places (1.01)4

Solution

We can write (1.01)⁴ = (1 + 0.01)⁴

(1 + 0.01)⁴ = 1 + 4(0.01) + 6(0.01)² + 4(0.01)³+(0.01)⁴

= 1 + 0.04 + 0.0006 + 0.000004 + 0.00000001

= 1.04060401

= 1.04060 (5 d.p)

The Binomial Expansion Formula

Consider the expansion of (x + y)⁵ again

(x + y)⁵ = (x + y)(x + y)(x + y)(x + y)(x + y)

The first term is obtained by multiplying the xs in the five brackets. there is only one way to doing this

(x + y)ⁿ = xn + nx^{n – 1}y +    xⁿ – ²y² +     x^n-3y³ + ….

x^n-ry^r + …. yⁿ

It can be shown that the binomial expansion formula holds for positive, negative, integral or any rational value of n, provided there is a restriction on the values of x and y in the expansion of (x + y)ⁿ

We shall however consider only the binomial expansion formula for a positive integral n

15.

1. Write down the binomial expansion of  ⁶ simplifying all the terms
2. Use the expansion in (a) to evaluate (1.0025)⁶ correct to five significant figures.

Solution

⁶  = 1 + ⁶C₁ ¹    +   ⁶C₂²

    +   ⁶C₃  ³    +    ⁶C₄ 

    +   ⁶C₅  ⁵    +    ⁶C₆  ⁶

⁶=  1 +   x   +  ³   +   x

⁴    +    x  ⁵   +  ⁶

= 1 + x   +   x²+   x³  +x⁴  +   x⁵ +   x⁶

• (1.0025)⁶   =  (1 + 0.0025)⁶

=  )⁶

=  )⁶

Put x  =

x =   x 4   = =  0.01

therefore   (1.0025)⁶   =  1  +    (0.01)  +   (0.01)²  + (0.01)  +(0.01)⁴ + …

= 1 + 0.015 + 0.00009375 + 0.0000003125

= 1.0150940625

= 1.0151 (5 s.f.)

EVALUATION

Expand ( 2 + 4x )⁴ simplifying the terms

Example 5
(a) Using the binomial theorem, obtain the expansion of (1 + 3x)⁶ + (1 – 3x)⁶  simplifying all the terms

(b)Use the above result to calculate the value of (1.03)⁶ + (0.97)⁶, correct to five decimal places

Solution:

(1 + 3x)⁶ = 1 + ⁶C₁ (3x) + ⁶C₂ (3x)² + ⁶C₃ (3x)³ _ ⁶C₄ (3x)⁴ _ ⁶C₅ (3x)⁵ + ⁶C₆ (3x)⁶          ….. (1)

(1 – 3x)⁶ = 1 – ⁶C₁ (3x) + ⁶C₂ (3x)² – ⁶C₃ (3x)³ + ⁶C₄ (3x)⁴ _ ⁶C₅ (3x)⁵ + ⁶C₆ (3x)⁶          ….. (2)

Adding (1) and (2)

(1 + 3x)⁶ +(1 – 3x)⁶  = 2 + 2 x  ⁶C₂ (3x)²  + 2 x ⁶C₄ (3x)⁴  + 2 x ⁶C₆ (3x)⁶

= 2 + 2 x   9x² + 2 x   x 81x⁴  + 2  x 729x⁶

= 2 + 270x² + 2430x⁴ + 1458x⁶

(1.03)⁶    =   (1 + 0.03)⁶

(0.97)⁶    =   (1 – 0.03)⁶

Put 1 + 0.03 = 1 + 3x

Therefore    3x   =   0.03

Therefore     x    =   0.01

Hence

(1.03)⁶ + (0.97)⁶   = 2 + 270(0.01)² + 2430(0.01)⁴ + 1458(0.01)

= 2 + 0.027 + 0.0000243 + 2.0270243

= 2.02702    (5 d.p)

16.

• Using the binomial theorem, expamd (1 + 2x)⁵, simplifying all the terms
• Use your expansion to calculate the value of 1.02⁵, correct to six significant figures

If the first three terms of the expansion of (1 + px)ⁿ in ascending powers of x are 1 + 20x + 160x,

Find the values of n and p

Solution:

• (1 + 2x)⁵ = 1 . ⁵C₁(2x) + ⁵C₂(2x)² + ⁵C₃(2x)² + ⁵C₄(2x)⁴ + ⁵C₅(2x)⁵

= 1 + 5.(2x) +   . 4x² +   . 8x³  +  . 16x   + 32x⁵

= 1 + 10x + 40x² + 80x³ + 80x⁴ + 32x⁵

• (1.02) = (1 + 0.02)

Put 1 + 0.02 = 1 + 2x

Therefore 2x = 0.02

x = 0.01

Hence:

(1.02)⁵ = 1 + 10(0.01) + 40(0.01)² + 80(0.01)³ + 80(0.01)⁴ + 32(0.01)⁵

= 1 + 0.1 + 0.004 + 0.0008 + 0.00000008

= 1.10408 (6.s.f.)

6.3 The Binomial Theorem for any index

The Binomial expansion formula is also applicable to any index n, where n can be positive or negative integer or even a fraction

If /x/  1, then:

(1 + x)ⁿ = 1 + nx +   +   +  x⁴  + … where n may be a negative integer or a fraction.

17.

Use the Binomial expansion formula to obtain the first five terms of the expansion of  (1 +   x)^-2

Solution:

(1 +   x)^-2  = 1 + (-2) ( x) + ( ( x)² +  ( x)³ +  ( x)⁴ +  ….

= 1 – x + 3. ²  – 4.³  + 5.⁴

• (1 + px)ⁿ = 1 + 20x + 160x² + …

(1 + px)ⁿ = 1 + ⁿc₁ (px) + ⁿc₁ (px)² + …

            = 1 + npx   +   p²x² …

            = 1 + 20x + 160x² + …

By equating coefficients

np = 20                                                …        (1)

p²  = 160                                    …        (2)

From (1) p =                                     …        (3)

Therefore p² =                    …        (4)

Substituting (4) into (2)

  x    = 160

x 200   =  160

There 200(n – 1) = 160n

200n – 200           = 160n

200n – 160n         = 200

                40n         = 200

                     n         = 5

From (3)p =    = 4

Hence, n = 5, p = 4

18.

Obtain the first four terms of the explanation of (2 +   x)⁸in ascending powers of x. hence, find the value of (2.005)⁸, correct to five significant figures.

Solution:

(2 +   x)⁸= 2⁸(1+   x)⁸  

= 2⁸[1 +⁸C₁(  x)  + ⁸C₂ (  )²  +  ⁸C₃ (  )³   + … ]

=   2⁸[1 +8(  x)  +  (  )²  +  (  )³   + …]

=   2⁸[1 + 2X +  X²+ X³  + …]

Write 2.0.005

Put 2 +  x    =  2 + 0.005

Therefore   x    =   0.005

Therfore  x   =  0.005 x 2

                       = 0.01

Hence,

(2.005)⁸   =   2⁸[1 +2(0.01)  + (0.01)²+  (0.01)³ ]

(2.005)⁸   = 2⁸ + 2⁹(0.01) + 2⁶.7(0.01)² + 2⁵ x 7(0.01)³ + …

= 256 + 5.12 + 0.0448 + 0.000224

               = 261.165025

               = 261.17 (5 s.f.)

SS2 Geography Examination Question For Third Term

      SENIOR CLASS TWO ( S.S.S. 2)

GEOGRAPHY  1^ST – 3^RD TERM EXAM

SECTION A: OBJECTIVES

1. The point where a river enters into the sea, ocean or lake is known as (a) Course of a river (b) mouth of a river (c) source of a river (d) end of a river
2. Which of these is not a feature of the middle course of a river? (a) gorge (b) meander (c) river cliff (d) interlocking spurs
3. The Nile Basin depends on River _______ for irrigation? (a) Nile (b) Benue (c) Niger
4. Irrigation is practiced because ____ (a) Rainfall is in abundance (b) Rainfall is scarce (c) the grass are scarce
5. The largest desert is (a) Kalahari desert (b) Sahara desert (c) Atacama desert (d) Namib desert
6. Which of these deserts is sandy (a) Erg (b) Reg (c) Hamada (d) Mountain desert
7. The process of wind erosion which involves the lifting and blowing away of loose sand  is (a) Abrasion (b) Deflation (c) Attrition (d) Saltation  
8. Which of these is formed by the deposition action of wind? (a) Sand Dunes (b) Yardang (c) Zeugen (d) Rock pedestals
9. An Isolated rocky outcrop of granite is (a) Dunes (b) Inselberg (c) Seifs (d) Yardang
10. The action of glacier is more dominant in (a) humid region (b) tropical region (c) temperate region (d) desert region
11. The breaking down of rocks through the collision of the different rock fragments is called (a) Attrition (b) Abrasion (c) Traction (d) Sapping
12.  One of the problems of lumbering is that ____ (a) It can lead to growth of towns (b) It can kill the lumber man during felling (c) the trees are in pure stand
13. Which of the following is a feature of glacier deposition? (a) Beach (b) Seifs (c) Boulder clay (d) Delta
14. The water thrown up the beach by wave is known as (a) Swash (b) Backwash (c) Current (d) Tide
15. Which of these is not a mechanism of wave erosion?  (a) Solvent action (b) Attrition (c) Traction (d) Corrasion
16. Steep rocks adjoining the coast are_____ (a) Capes (b) Cliffs (c) Bays (d) Stack
17. When two caves meet and unite, they form (a) Stack (b) Stump (c) Arch (d) Bays
18. The height of a place above the sea level is known as__ (a) Latitude (b) Altitude (c) Lapse rate (d) Spot height
19. Which of these factors does not affect weather and

climate (a) Cloud cover (b) Humidity (c) Latitude (d)

Natural Vegetation

• The instrument used for measuring wind direction is

___(a) Wind vane (b) Thermometer (c) Anemometer (d) Rain guage

• Wet and dry bulb thermometer could be used for__ measuring (a) Rainfall (b) Relative humidity (c) Temperature (d) Wind speed
•  One areas of irrigation in the Niger Basin is ____ (a) Mali (b) Egypt (c) Sudan
• The liquid portion of the earth is called ___(a) Hydrosphere (b) Biosphere  (c) Atmosphere
•  Animals, man and parasites are grouped as ___(a) Decomposers  (b) Heterotrophs (c) Autotrophs
• The relationship between organisms and its physical environment is called __________(a) Environment (b) Ecosystem  (c) Community
• The artificial felling of trees is called ____ (a) deforestation (b) afforestation (c) lumbering
•  The type of water that is tightly held by the soil particles such that it is never available to the plant is known as (a) Capillary water (b) Hygroscopic water (c) Gravitational water (d) Field capacity.
• Which of the following soils is made up of mainly quartz particles?(a) Clay soil (b) Sandy soil (c) Loamy soil (d) Humus soil
• The best soil for agricultural activities is (a) Loamy soil (b) Sandy soil (c) Clay soil (d) Compost soil
• The remains of the decomposition of plants and animals in soil constitute…….. (a) mineral matter (b) organic matter (c) soil water (d) living organisms
• The smallest soil particle is __________ (a) Silt (b) Sand (c) Gravel (d) Clay
• The cheapest means of transportation is (a) air (b) water (c) rail (d) road
• The best way to get an urgent medi-care service internationally is by (a) water transport (b) road transport (c) air transport (d) rail transport
• The safest means of moving goods and passengers from one country to another is by ________ transport (a) air (b) road (c) rail (d) water
• The means of transport that is more prone to accident is (a) water (b) air (c) road (d) rail
• One advantage of inland water-ways is that (a) they are flexible (b) they are fast (c) goods are transported cheaply (d) it is affected by seasonality
• Which of these industries produce biro, slippers, and school wears (a) Heavy industries (b) Primary industries (c) Tertiary industries (d) Light industries.
• The following are primary industries except    (a) nursing (b) fishing (c) lumbering (d) hunting
• One of the following is not a reason for sitting industries in Nigeria      (a) large labour force      (b) Nearness to banks (c) Availability of market (d) presence of social amenities
• The following are characteristic of manufacturing industries except (a) small scale in nature (b) produce mainly exported goods (c) absence of indigenous skilled labour (d) they require large labour force
• Which of these towns is known for textile making (a) Akwette (b) Bida (c) Lagos (d) Benin city
• Light industry is predominant in West Africa because of (a) inadequate capital (b) sparse population (c) inadequate power supply
• The role of transport  in economic development of any nation include all except (a) national disintegration (b) movement of goods and services (c) opening up new areas
• Which of the following is the major export commodity of Nigeria? (a) cocoa (b) palm oil (c) crude oil
• All are commodities exported by Nigeria except (a) groundnut (b) corn beef (c) rubber
• All are benefits of international trade to Nigeria except (a) makes the country a dumping ground (b) increases foreign exchange (c) creates employment
• Enlarge the scale 1:100,000 by 3 times (a) 1:300,000 (b) 1:33,000 (c). 1:150,000 (d) 1: 500,000
• The presence of marshy area signifies —————- (a) Educational function (b) Social function (c) Swamp rice cultivation (d) Livestock and farming
• The presence of features like forest indicates —————- (a) Farming and lumbering (b) Commercial function (c) Administrative function (d) Residential function
• The presence of hotels and stadium signifies ( a) Social function (b) Educational function (c) Farming and lumbering (d) Administrative function
• In relating communication to settlement, the presence of minor roads and foot paths are common features of ———————– (a) Urban settlement (b) Rural settlement (c) Town (d) City
• The most populous country in the world is ____ (a) Nigeria (b) Indonesia   (c) China
• The best type of population concept is _______population. (a) under  (b) optimum           (c) over
• One of these cannot reduce world population? (a) polygamy  (b) monogamy (c) celibacy
• The major reason for the high population density in India is the _______ (a) presence of Iron ore in the Ganges (b)  Early marriages in the Ganges delta  (c)  India is the seat of civilization for Hindus religion
• One of these areas is sparsely populated _________ (a) The Rurh region of Germany   (b) The Pittsburgh region of North-East USA (c) The Amazon basin of South America
• One of these is NOT a factor for siting a settlement. (a) Good soil condition     (b) Good communication network (c) To preserve slavery
• The smallest type of settlement is called ______ (a) Village (b) Hamlet  (c) Homestead
• When several towns join together but each town still retains its identity it is called ______(a) conurbation (b) nuclear town (c) Megalopolis
• The type of settlement located along major transportation routes is called ______ settlement. (a) dispersed (b) Linear   (c) Nucleated

SSS 2 Geography Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.B      2.A      3.A      4.B      5.B  

6.C      7.B      8.A      9.B      10.B   

11.A    12.B    13.C    14.A    15.D

16.D    17.C    18.B    19.C    20.A   

21.C    22.A    23.A    24.B    25.B

26.C    27.B    28.B    29.A    30.B   

31.D    32.B   33.C    34.A    35.C   

36.C    37.D    38.A    39.D    40.A

41.A    42.A    43.A    44.B    45.B

46.A    47.A    48.C    49.A    50.A

51.B    52.B    53.B    54.C    55.B

56.C    57.C    58.C    59.A    60.B

THEORY

1a. Explain abrasion

1b. What is Time Zone?

1c.  Describe the following term- plucking, Settlement and Vegetation, climate and weather.

2a. State three procedures in interpreting communication on topographical maps.

2b. Define Irrigation and state 2 reasons for irrigation in agriculture

2c. Explain the following, Afforestation, Land reclamation, Drainage, flooding, relief and Mountain

3a. Differentiate between rotation and revolution

3b. State the elements of climate and types in Africa

3c. What is an urban area? State the types of urban area.

4a. Define an industry? And State the types of industry

4b.  What are the problems facing transportation in Nigeria?

4c. What is a rural area? State the types of rural area.

5a. What is soil?

5b. Define lumbering and state factors for lumbering

5c. What is transportation? And State the mode of transportation.

SS2 Government Examination Question For Third Term

SENIOR CLASS TWO ( S.S.S. 2)

GOVERNMENT   3^RD TERM EXAM

SECTION A: OBJECTIVES

1. An electoral commission is headed by a (a) Director (b) Chairman (c) Secretary.
2. A resident commissioner is an electoral officer in a (a) Local Government (b) State (c) District
3. A form of rigging in electoral districts is (a) lobbying (b) gerrymandering (c) ramping
4. In a plurality system of votes, the highest number of vote (a) wins (b) has a second ballot (c)none
5. Absolute majority requires_____ percent (a)50 (b)40 (c)10
6. ______ is a permanent body created by the constitution to organize Federal, state and Local Government council elections in Nigeria. (a) SEC (b) NCDC (c) INEC
7. The ____has its own chairman and seven other persons that are normally appointed by INEC (a) SIEC (b) SICE (c) SIENC
8. _____opinion can be defined as the belief, values and attitudes, which are commonly held and expressed by the majority of the people on a given public issue. (a) government (b) people’s (c) Public
9. Which one of the following is NOT a formation of public opinion? (a) mass media (b) riot (c) lectures
10. Public opinion is very important because it (a) guarantees a free press (b) lets the government know what the people want (c) protects minority (d) incites violence
11. Public opinion is defined as the______ (a) expressed views of the active and conscious citizens (b) opinion of the entire citizenry (c) education of the uneducated public  (d) Views of the government
12. Public opinion can be formed through the following ways except (a) elections (b) rumour and gossip (c) mass media (d) coup
13. The following are the functions of public opinion except (a) it helps the government to meet the needs of the people (b) it helps the government to formulate policies (c) it is difficult to ascertain (d) it wakes the government from its slumber
14. Public opinion can be expressed through (a) general strike (b) socialization (c) compromise (d) coup
15. Who among the following is a civil servant? (a) Bank manager (b) Medical Doctor (c) Commissioner of Police.
16. Neutrality of civil servants means that they (a) do what they like (b) cannot accept government appointment (c) should not take part in politics.
17. In a civil service commission, the boss is usually the (a) Minister (b) Chairman (c) Permanent Secretary.
18. Red-tapism in the civil service simply means (a) too much emphasis on protocol (b) delegated power (c) using red tape to measure objects

1. Those who work under the civil service are called (a) public servants (b) civil servants (c) political leaders.
2. A public corporation is headed by a —- (a) minister (b) permanent secretary (c) chairman.
3. Those who work in public corporation are called — (a) civil servants (b) public servants (c) political head.
4. Public corporation is set up by —- (a) the minister (b) act of parliament (c) chairman.
5. Public corporations are owned by the (a) director (b) government (c) minister.
6. All but one of the following are examples of public corporation (a) NIPOST (b) NITEL  (c) Ray Power
7. All the following are sources of revenue of local government except (a) rate (b) motor parks and market fees (c) duties on exportation of local products.
8. An electoral district for local government election is—- (a) senatorial district (b) ward (C) constituency.
9. One of the problems facing local government  in Nigeria is the (a) withdrawal of grants by the central government (b) lack of qualified personnel (c) collection of taxes.
10. Local government imposes rates because (a) the government wants the rich to become richer (b) the people are expected to finance political parties (c) of the need to provide fund for public corporation.
11. Representatives of the people in the local government areas are called (a) parliamentarians (b) congressmen (c) councilors.
12. There are ____ arms of government (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4
13. _____ is a form of government that is controlled or headed by a traditional ruler (a) traditional government (b) village government (c) local government (d) state government
14. ______is a group of people chosen or elected to make rules and regulations to guide the behaviour of the citizens.(b) democracy (b) society (c) government (d) community
15.  _____ is a form of traditional government in which supreme power is in the hands of one person in which the country is ruled by a king or queen. (a) oligarchy (b) monarchy (c) government (d) system
16. ______ is another traditional form of government in which a few people who are powerful or privileged rule. (a) monarchy (b) oligarchy (c) aristocracy (c) democracy
17. In ____ government, what we now have is constitutional monarch or ceremonial monarch whose powers are controlled by the constitution. (a) modern (b) ancient (c) old (d) time
18. _____is the traditional government rule by the wealthiest in society.  (a) aristocracy (b) plutocracy (c) oligarchy (d) government
19. _____ is a government of individuals who own land and command great respect among the people. (a) aristocracy (b) plutocracy (c) oligarchy (d) government
20. ______is a form of oligarchy in which the affairs of the state and religion are controlled by one person. The laws of God are taken to be the laws of the state. (a) oligarchy (b) aristocracy (c) monarchy (d) theocracy
21. A constitutional government could either be presidential or parliamentary. (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe (d) I don’t know
22.  ______ system of government is headed by the prime minister. The executive and the legislative arms of government are not separated. (a) presidential (b) parliamentary (d) democracy
23. ______ system of government is headed by a president elected by the people. He rules for a fixed period, e.g. four years or five years. The three arms of government are separate in their composition. (a) presidential (b) parliamentary (d) democracy
24. West African countries came under the colonial rule of Britain, France, Germany and Portugal (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe (d) I don’t know
25. the whole of West African countries came under the colonial rule of Britain, France, Germany and Portugal except ______country (a) Cameroon (b) Gambia (c) Uganda (d) Liberia
26. _____ rule is a system adopted by the British to rule her colonies with use of local chiefs or other appointed intermediaries and traditional laws and customs with British officials merely supervising the

administration. (a) direct (b) indirect (c) directed (d) non-directed

• Which one of the following is NOT  a reason for colonialism. (a) search for raw materials (b) introduction of slavery (c) to kill the missionaries
• Which one of the following is NOT a role of traditional rulers  in indirect rule system. (a) collection of taxes (b) link between local and government (c) control the white men
• Nigerian state by 1900 and subsequent Amalgamation by 1914, it would be recalled that classical Lugardian indirect rule is nothing other than ______________ (a) economic exploitation (b) economic finances (c) economic pandemic (d) economic development
• The territories of Nigeria nation state by Lord Lugard and his colleagues the indirect rule system was a success in ______Nigeria (a) Southern (b) Northern (c) Eastern
• Which of the following was a positive impacts of colonial rule in West Africa. (a) Absence of rulers (b) Appointment of warrants (c) Aba women riot (d) Exposure of western education
• Which of the following was a negative impacts of colonial rule in West Africa. (a) development of political parties (b) introduction of currency (c) creating problems of unity (d) education
• _______ formed the Nigerian National Democratic party in 1923 to provide a platform on which he spripad his anti-colonialist ideas He co-founded the daily news with Dr caulcrick. (a) Dr Nnamdi Azikwe (b) Herbert Macaulay (c) Chief Obafemi Awolowo (d) Buhari
• ______ was co-founder and the editor of the West Africa pilot from 1937 1940 (a) Dr Nnamdi Azikwe (b) Herbert Macaulay (c) Chief Obafemi Awolowo (d) Buhari
• _______was a co-founder of the Trades Union Congress in 1943, a very active nationalist trader union. As the premier of the western region from 1954-1959, he introduced important reforms, one of which was the policy of free education in 1955. (a) Dr Nnamdi Azikwe (b) Herbert Macaulay (c) Chief Obafemi Awolowo (d) Buhari
• MacPherson’s constitution gave rise to ______ constitutional conferences in 1953 and 1954, the first in London and the other in Lagos (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
• The Governor General of Nigeria in 1954 was  (a) NnamdiAzikiwe (b) Oliver Lyttleton (c) Sir Bourdillon (d) Sir Lord Lugard
• The following were the main provision of the Lyttleton’s constitution except (a) Elective principle (b) Establishment of federalism (c) Division of power(d) establishment of the office of the regional premier
• The 1953 Constitutional Conference was held in (a) Calabar (b) Lagos (c) London (d) Ghana
• One of the failures of the Lyttleton’s Constitution was that (a) no provision was made for the office of the prime minister (b) it introduced federal structure (c) it made ministers heads of departments
• ______ is regarded as the first Federal Constitution of Nigeria  (a) Clifford’s constitution (b) Macpherson’s constitution (c) Lyttleton’s constitution
• The Lagos constitutional conference was held in (a) 1953 (b) 1958 (c) 1957
• All  but one of  the following were the recommendations made by the Willinks commission  (a) to entrench fundamental human rights in the constitution (b) to create more states (c) to establish special development board for Niger Delta
• The last constitutional conference held before independence was in (a) Lagos (b) London (c) Calabar
• According to the recommendation made at the end of the London Constitutional conference of 1957, the northern was to be granted self government in (a) 1959 (B) 1952 (C) 1956
• The first Nigerian prime minister was (a) Alhaji Tafawa Balewa (b) Nnamdi Azikiwe (c) Yakubu Gowon
• The first Nigeria prime minister was (a) Abubarka Tafawa Balewa (b) Shehu Shagari (c) Aguiyi Ironsi (d) Obafemi Awolowo
• The 1960 constitution adopted —– in Nigeria (a) Presidential system (b) parliamentary system (c) unitary system (d) con-federal
• The following were the provisions of the 1960 constitution except (a) It adopted a parliamentary system (b) The senate was given power over money (c)  it introduced unicameral legislature (d) Governor general became the ceremonial president.
• Nigeria got her independence on (a) 2^nd October 1960 (b) 1^st October 1960 (c) 1^st November 1960 (d) 3^rd of February 1961
• The head of state under the 1960 constitution was (a) Nnamdi Azikiwe (b) Tafawa Balewa (c) Yakubu Gowon (d) Obafemi Awolowo
• The 1963 Constitution adopted—system of government (a) federal  (b) unitary (c) parliamentary (d) con-federal
• Under the 1963 constitution—-was supreme (a) the parliament (b) the constitution (c) the congress (d) the President
• The following were the features of the 1963 constitution except (a) it was a republican government (b) supreme court replaced privy council (c) Queen of England was still the head of state (d) fundamental human rights were fully guaranteed
• One of the following was the achievement of the 1963 constitution (a)Elected president became the head of state (b) The privy council was still the final court (c) Rights of citizen was not guaranteed (d) the queen of England was still the head of State
• The head of state under the 1963 Constitution was (a) Abubakar Tafawa Balewa (b) Nnamdi Azikiwe (c) Olusegun Obasanjo (d) Obafemi Awolowo
• The term used in removing a president in a Presidential System of Government is called (a) vote of no confidence (b) impeachment (c) suspension (d) termination
• Under the 1979 Constitution, other members of the federal executive council other than the president were called (a) senators (b) supervisory councilors (c) ministers (d) commissioners
• Under the 1979 Republican Constitution, the president was elected by (a) electorates (b) senate (c) electoral college (d) National Assembly
• All but one of the following was a feature of the 1979 Constitution (a) Clear separation of power (b) Lobbying was allowed (c) There was fusion of power (d) The president was popularly elected.
• Under the 1979 Republican Constitution, ministers were responsible to the (a) parliament (b) president (c) senate (d) Chief Judge
• The 1999 constitutions provides for _______local government councils (a) 774 (b) 775 (c) 760

SSS 2 Government Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.B      2.B      3.A      4.A      5.A  6.C  7.A   8.C      9.B

10.D    11.A    12.D    13.C    14.B    15.C    16.C   17.B

18.A    19.B    20.C    21.B    22.B    23.B    24.C   25.A

26.C    27.B    28.B    29.C    30.B    31.A    32.C   33.B

34.B    35.A    36.B    37.A    38.D    39.A    40.B  41.A

42.A    43.D    44.B    45.C    46.C    47.A    48.B  49.D

50.C    51.B    52.A    53.C    54.A    55.B    56.A  57.C

58.A    59.C    60.B    61.B    62.A    63.A    64.A  65.A

66.B    67.C    68.B    69.B    70.C    71.B    72.C  73.A

74.B    75.B    76.C    77.A    78.B    79.B    80.A

SECTION B: THEORY ( Answer  6 questions)

1. Explain the sources of revenue of local government

2. Explain the problems confronting local government.

3. Mention 5 problems of local government.

4. List five suggested solutions to the problems of local government.

5. Discuss 5 features of capitalism.

6. State 5 characteristics of socialism

7. Mention six(6) examples of public corporation.

8. State 5 features of communism.

9. Highlight 5 features of feudalism.

10. Differentiate between public and civil service.

11. What is public corporation?

12. List 5 functions of public corporation.

13. A. Define public opinion

14. List 5 ways public opinion can be formed

15. Define Election and List 3 functions of an Electoral commission

THEORY           (ANSWER 5 QUESTIONS ONLY )

( 5 x 9 = 45)

1. Discuss the features of the 1979 Constitution.
2. Discuss the merits of the 1979 Constitution.
3. Highlight 5 achievements of the Second Republican Constitution of 1979.
4. What is Lobbying?
5. State 5 differences between 1963 and 1979 Republican Constitution.
6. (a) What is Policy of Assimilation? (b) Give 5 features of the policy.
7. What is collective responsibility?
8. Mention five achievement of the 1979 constitution
9. Highlight the features of the independence constitution
10. What were the achievements of the constitution?
11. What were the major decisions reached at the 1957 constitutional conference?
12. What were the recommendations made by the Willinks commission?
13. Explain the major important provisions of the Lyttleton constitution.
14.  State 3 Advantages and Disadvantages of colonial rule
15. Define direct Rule and Indirect rule

SS2 Literature Examination Question For Third Term

      SENIOR CLASS TWO ( S.S.S. 2)

LITERATURE  3^RD TERM EXAM

SECTION A: OBJECTIVES

1. Which of the following is not a background of invisible man novel? (a) slavery (b) physical bondage (c) segregated schools (d) equal rights
2. Which of these is not plot account at Invisible Man novel? (a) black American in twentieth century (b) a successful man (c) unlearned man (d) uncultured
3. Tod Clifton left the brotherhood as a result of  their__ (a) unity (b) peace (c) disillusionment (d) poverty
4. _____  introduced Tod Clifton to the brotherhood and also was his mentor (a) Tom Wilson (b) Brother Jack (c) Jack Dowell
5. ______ gives directives that the Narrator should be killed (a) Brother Jack (b) Clifton (c) Ras the Exhorter
6. _____ is married to one of the leaders of the brotherhood group (a) Sybil (b) Cyril (c) Mary Rambo
7. Which of the following is not a setting in the novel Invisible man? (a) dominance of white (b) oppression of the blacks (c) justice (d) injustice
8. One of the major even in the novel is _____(a) The Battle Friends (b) The Battle Royal (c) The Gate fall
9. The invitation to attend the Battle Royal programme had come from the school____(a) principal (b) superintendent (c) mistress (d) masters
10. The direct manifestation of the racist tendencies of white-dominated America in the novel is called___(a) invisible man (b) invisible woman (c) invisibility
11. The Narrator, being skeptical, answers his questions. Brother Jack continues to talk to him. The word being skeptical means_____(a) allowed (b) aware (c) assured (d) doubtful
12. The Narrator listens to Mary Rambo as she sings _____(a) Black water blues (b) black white blues (c) black water white
13. Was the Narrator successful in disposing of Mary’s Piggy bank? (a) Yes (b) No (c) Maybe
14. Washington, in his time, publicly preached subservience of the balck folks to the white folks.  What does subservience stands for? (a) obey others without questioning (b) obey others with questioning (c) not ready to obey to the end
15. Why did Mary not accept the Hundred-dollar bills from the Narrator? (a) she does not any white person to date her (b) She does not want any white person to accuse her of theft. (c) she is married
16. Wuthering Heights concerns the interactions of___families over three generations (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4
17. The novel is set in the____ of Yorkshire and covers the years from 1771 to 1803 (a) cliff mountain (b) village square (c) museum (d) desolate moors
18. The Earnshaws and Lintons are in___with their environment, but their lives are disrupted by an outsider (a) chaos (b) misunderstanding (c) harmony
19. ____ is an emblem of the social problems of a nation entering the age of industrial expansion and urban growth (a) Bronte (b) Heathcliff (c) Lintons
20. _____sets the action of the novel entirely within the locale familiar to her. (a) Bronte (b) Heathcliff (c) Lintons
21. ____ is a companion and servant in the Earnshaw and Linton households, and she shares many of the values and perceptions of the families (a) Lockwood (b) Nelly (c) Lintons
22. What is the name of the village near Wuthering Heights?
    (A) Loch Crag (B) Gimmerton (C) Heatherton (D) Purvey
23. In what region of England was Emily Brontë raised?
    (A) Sussex (B) Gloucestershire (C) Yorkshire (D) Warwickshire
24. Who plans to live at Thrushcross Grange at the end of the novel? (A) Young Catherine and Hareton (B) Lockwood
    (C) Heathcliff (D) Young Catherine and Linton Heathcliff
25. On what day do young Catherine and Hareton plan to be married?  (A) New Year’s Day(B) The Ides of March
    (C) The anniversary of Heathcliff’s death (D) Valentine’s Day
26. Why does young Catherine climb over the garden wall?
    (A) To escape from the Grange (B) To meet with Linton
    (C) To retrieve her hat, which fell off as she stretched for the fruit of a tree
27. Who raises Hareton during the early years of his life?
    (A) Hindley  (B) Heathcliff (C) Catherine (D) Nelly
28. Who does Lockwood believe would have given young Catherine a fairy tale life, if only she would have fallen in love with him? (A) Heathcliff  (B) Hareton (C) Linton (D) Lockwood
29. Which of the following characters dies first? (A) Mrs. Earnshaw (B) Mr. Earnshaw (C) Mrs. Linton (D) Edgar Linton
30. Which of the following characters dies first? (A) Mrs. Earnshaw (B) Mr. Earnshaw (C) Mrs. Linton (D) Edgar Linton
31. In a play or story, we refer to the character who contradicts the protagonist as the___(a) opponent (b) obstacle (c) villain (d) pun.
32. ____ determines the atmosphere of a poem. (a) Tone (b) Theme (c) Structure (d) Synopsis
33. A type of play which is funny, whose action is difficult to believe is called a___ (a) farce (b) melodrama (c) prosaic drama (d) comedy.
34. “All animals are equal, but some animals are more equal than others.” What is the figure of speech? (a) paradox (b) oxymoron (c) personification (c) metaphor
35. ____ can be structured, with rhyming lines and meter, the rhythm and emphasis of a line based on syllabic beats. (a) drama (b) story teller (c) poem (d) book
36. The word ‘Second-class =” in the novel pertains to ___(a) girls who in African culture are less rated than boys (b ) boys partially rated than girls (c) girls are rated than boys
37. Adah is rated second-class citizen by who? (a) friend (b) husband (c) Francis (d) B & C
38. Adah forced herself into the ___school and the neighbor was a ___(a) teacher, Methodist (b) Ruthina , teacher (c) Methodist, Teacher
39. In Chapter 13 (Part 2), while members of the Amen Kristi Church are on an evangelical mission in Egba___ begins (a) religious persecution (b) election (c) peace
40. The settings of Unexpected Joy at down are the\ following except___(a) the historical moment (b) geographical location (c) Set in Between Ghana and Kenya (d) Set between Ghana Nigeria
41. Which of the following is not plot background of the story in Unexpected Joy at dawn? (a) Nii and Mama Ojo The two siblings (b) The alleged fraud (c) the deportation and hardship (d) marriage vow
42. All of the following are notable themes in Unexpected Joy at Dawn except___(a) Corruption (b) Xenophobia (c) Farming (d) Economic mess
43. The technique or style in Unexpected Joy at dawn is ____(a) complex plot featuring two protagonist (b) three protagonist (c) simple lot 4 protagonist
44. A story which explains a natural phenomenon is___A. legend B. parable. C. myth. D. fiction
45. A narrative in which characters and events are invented is___A. fiction. B. epistolary. C. auto-biography. (d) Biography
46. In Black Woman Novel, Lines and stanzas are to poetry as action and dialogue are to A. music. B. prose. C. fiction. D. drama
47. The performers in a play constitute the A. chorus. B. characters. C. audience. D. cast
48. The types of literary work are A. eras. B. episodes. C. genres. D. cantos.
49. Repetition is usually used in literacy works to ____ A assess B emphasize C exaggerate D xpose   E  modify
50. “She was found without her flower” is an example of ____  A alliteration B. allusion C. apostrophe D.  metaphor   E  simile
51. The figure of speech used in the statement “The village lost its beautiful structures, glory   and its inhabitants to the inferno” is ______ (A) anticlimax  B  antithesis C  climax D epigram  E  paradox
52.   “The child is the father of the man” illustrates the use of _____A exaggeration B Epigram  C  oxymoron  D  paradox E personification
53. Rhetorical questions are used in literary works to achieve the following EXCEPT _____ A creating awareness B drawing a point home C emphasizing a point D      jettisoning       the writer’s position E reinforcing a point
54. From the Novel Sons and Duaghters- A play that mainly aims at provoking excessive laughter is called___(a) Comedy (b) Farce (c) Satire (d) Tragic-comedy
55. A sonnet may be divided into an octave and A. tercet. B. quatrain. C. sestet. D.septet.
56. A character that develops with events and situations in a novel is a ……character (a) flat (b) sound (c) minor (d) main
57. “All hands on deck” is an example of A. metaphor. B personification. C.synecdoche D. simile
58. A dirge is poem sung A. to send a child to sleep. B. to make workers happy. C. at a birthday party. D. at a funeral.
59. In drama, the ____________ creates humour. A. hero B. clown C. villain D.chorus
60. And your laughter like a flame
    piercing the shadows
    Has revealed Africa to me beyond
    the snow of yesterday.
    From the poem above, shadow means (a) bleak future (b)  period of suffering (c)  abstract ideas (d) famine

SSS 2 Literature Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.D      2.D      3.C      4.B      5.C  

6.A      7.C      8.B      9.B      10.C   

11.D    12.A    13.B    14.A    15.B

16.C    17.D    18.C    19.B    20.A   

21.B    22.B    23.C    24.A    25.A

26.C    27.D    28.D    29.A    30.C   

31.B    32.A   33.D    34.A    35.C   

36.A    37.D    38.C    39.A    40.C

41.D    42.C    43.A    44.C    45.A

46.D    47.D    48.B    49.B    50.D

51.A    52.B    53.D    54.B    55.C

56.D    57.C    58.D    59.B    60.B

SECTION B THEORY

1a. Write 5 Major themes and events in the story Invisible Man

1b. Mention 5 characters and their roles

2a. Write the name of the author of Invisible and the purpose of the writer.

3a. Write and explain any 3 themes in Wuthering Heights

3b. Write 3 major events and 3 characters with their roles

ANSWER ANY THREE QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION

(1) ‘The pulley’ by George Herbert  is a metaphysical poem of creation, explain.

(2) Discuss ‘ the school boy’ as an example of romantic poetry.

(3) Juxtapose the character of Ochuole and Ogeyi in the text  ‘ harvest of corruption ‘

(4)  Explain the plot of the poem  ‘ crossing the bar’

(5) Discuss the theme of ‘vanity’

(6) What is the role of piano and drums in the poem ‘piano and poem’.

SS2 Mathematics Examination Question For Third Term

SENIOR CLASS TWO ( S.S.S. 2)

MARKETING   1^ST – 3^RD TERM EXAM

SECTION A: OBJECTIVES

1. An advantage of road transportation over air transportation is that____(a) fares are not fixed but negotiable (b) it is suitable for carrying bulky goods (c) movements are on special routes (d) it is a faster means of moving goods
2. The route through which products flow from the producer to the ultimate consumer is_____ (a) marketing intermediary (b) distribution channel (c) merchandizing (d) transportation
3. The channel member that sells in small quantities to consumers is____ (a) an agent (b) a broker (c) a retailer (d) a wholesaler
4. Which of the following term is not an alternative name of middlemen? (a) channel members (b) marketing intermediaries (c) resellers (d) merchandisers
5. Speed is an important consideration in choosing a means of transportation where the goods are _____ (a) bulky (b) durable (c) fragile (d) perishable
6. Which of the following factors would influence the type of channel of distribution to be use by a company? (a) nature of products (b) competition (c) negotiation (d) government policies
7. Perishable products are better than transported by____ (a) rail (b) sea (c) air (d) road
8. The exchange of goods and services in international marketing is______ (a) counter trade (b) foreign trade (c) entreport (d) domestic trade
9. The closest channel member to the consumer is ____ (a) retailer (b) wholesaler (c) agent (d) producer
10. An importance of transportation to a marketer is that it_____ (a) reduces cost of production (b) increases the price of goods (c) increase the efficiency distribution (d) reduces the distribution cost
11. Which channel of distribution would a producer of tomato paste in Kano use to reach a target market in Asaba (a) producer – agent- consumer (b) producer – wholesaler – consumer (c) producer – retailer – consumer producer – wholesaler – retailer – consumer
12. The cheapest mode of transporting imported cars from America to Nigeria is by ______ (a) air (b) road (c) water (d) rail
13. The middlemen that buys in bulk and sells in bit is ______ (a) a retailer (b) an agent (c) a wholesaler (d) a broker
14. Which of the following channels of distribution would a producer who wants to control its unit price use? (a) producer – consumer (b) producer – retailer – consumer (c)  producer – wholesaler – retailer – consumer (d) producer – agent – retailer – consumer
15. All individuals and units that buy goods for personal use constitute the _____ (a) industrial market (b) consumer market (c) government market (d) re-seller market
16. A company that sells its goods directly in foreign countries is engaging in______ (a) exportation (b) importation (c) franchising (d) licensing
17. Which of these transportation modes is appropriate for transporting gas from Nigeria to Ghana? (a) pipeline (b) air (c) rail (d) truck
18. A facility that would be used by a producer that wants to reduce fluctuations in product supply is______(a) wholesaling (b) retailing (c) warehousing (d) merchandizing
19. Which of these transportation modes is appropriate for transporting gas from Nigeria to Ghana? (a) pipeline (b) air (c) rail (d) truck
20. Which of the following is an advantage of road transport? (a) provides employment (b) facilitates movement of goods (c) enchances trade and development (d) provides regular stopover
21. The essence of distribution is to _______ (a) deliver goods at the right time (b) identify customer needs (c) obtain feedback from customers (d) reduce the number of intermediaries
22. The end user of a product or services in the market is regarded as a _____(a) buyer (b) consumer (c) retailer (d) seller
23.  The closest channel member to the consumer is ______(a) retailer (b) wholesaler (c) agent (d) producer
24. Bridging the gap between producers and consumers is the sole purpose of ______ (a) distribution (b) hawking (c) retailing (d) warehousing
25. The cheapest mode of transporting imported cars from America to Nigeria is by _____ (a) Air (b) Road (c) Water (D) Rail
26. Which of the following channels of distribution would a producer who want to control its unit price use (a) Producer – consumer (b) producer – retailer – consumer (c) producer – wholesaler – retailer – consumer (d) producer – agent – retailer – consumer
27. An advantage of road transportation over air transportation is that____(a) fares are not fixed but negotiable (b) it is suitable for carrying bulky goods (c) movements are on special routes (d) it is a faster means of moving goods
28. An importance of transportation to a marketer is that it_____ (a) reduces cost of production (b) decreases the price of goods (c) increase the price of goods (d) reduces the distribution cost
29. The movement of goods and passengers from one country to another through water ways is called _____ transport (a) air (b) marine (c) pipeline (d) rail
30. A form of distribution in which manufacturers makes an agreement with a middleman in each market area stipulating that the distribution of the product within that is to be confined solely to that middleman is known as _______(a) mass distribution (b) exclusive agency distribution (c) selective distribution (d) price distribution
31. Marketing firms decision on the choice of transportation to the end users is influenced by___(a) cost advantage (b) reselling (c) social media
32. Which of the following is not documents used in transportation in marketing? (a) bill of lading Airway bill (c) teller machine
33. ___ is referred to as a place or storehouse where goods are kept until they are needed (a) market (b) warehouse (c) shops
34. Which of the following is not importance of warehousing (a) future storage (b) generate corruption (c) generate revenue
35. Which of the following is not factors to be considered when sitting a warehouse (a) operating cost (b) location (c) age (d) transportation
36. ____ is a warehouse where goods that are imported are kept until the duties on them are paid (a) state warehousing (b) bonded warehousing (c) manufacturer warehousing
37. ____ is a warehouse owned by the government where prohibited or seized goods are kept until they are sold (a) state warehousing (b) wholesale warehousing (c) bonded warehousing
38. ____ is the process of storing or keeping goods such as raw materials, semi-finished products, and equipment in a safe place until they are needed (a) market (b) storage (c) warehousing (c) production
39. ____ owned by are under the supervision of the Customs Authority (a) Bonded warehousing (b) state warehousing (c) public warehouse
40. ____ is a warehouse where seized contraband goods (e.g smuggled goods) are kept until they are sold on auction (a) public warehouse (b) state warehouse (c) bonded warehouse
41. ____ warehouse provides security (safety) for goods imported from other countries whose duties have not been paid (a) state (b) public (c) bonded
42. The receipt issued by a warehouse keeper for goods taken into the store is called__(a) warranty  (b) dock warrant (c)customs warrant (d) drawback warrant
43. Warehousing is one of the functions of the (a) wholesaler  (b) retailer   (c) government  (d) ministry of trade and industry
44. Which of the following warehouses is generally found near a port?…warehouse (a) manufacturer (b) wholesaler (c) bonded  (d) distributors
45. Who among the following is a middleman? (a) manufacturer (b) agent  (c) insurer  (d) consumer
46. An individual who makes the final use of goods and services provided by a firm is the (a) wholesaler (b) retailer   (c) consumer   (d) manufacturer
47. ____warehouse may be called  goods warehouse – i.e where goods are stored by traders and manufacturer until they are needed (a) state (b) ordinary (c) bonded
48. A_____is anything that can be offered to a market to satisfy a want or need. (a) product (b) warehouse (c) items
49. Product concept focuses on quality or superior performance or innovative features (a) True (b) False
50. Production concept does not focuses on mass production, mass distribution and low price. (a) True (b) False
51. ___ are goods that need to undergo processing. They are raw materials that would be converted into semi-finished or finished goods (a) primary (b) secondary (c) industrial
52. ___ are all farm produce that have not undergone processing. Examples include cotton wool, yam tuber (a) primary (b) secondary (c) industrial
53. _____ are all farm produce that have undergone processing. Examples include garri, yam flour (a) primary (b) secondary (c) industrial
54. ____products refer to items that the consumer buys with minimum shopping effort (A) convenience (b) consumer (c) essential
55. ____are products that are bought often in a routine manner without much thought on a regular basis (a) impulse (b) staple (c) items
56. ___are products that are purchased without any planning or search effort usually purchased because of a strongly felt need (a) impulse (b) staple (c) items
57.   ___are products consumers purchase and consume on a less frequent schedule compared to convenience products (a) impulse products (b) staple products (c) shopping products
58. ____ selling is selling products directly to consumers in a non-retail environment (a) indirect (b) direct (c) right
59. ____ selling is whereby consumer buys your product from a wholesaler, retailer, dealership or some other intermediary (a) indirect (b) direct (c) right
60. ______ can be defined as the capacity and willingness to develop, organize and manage a business venture along with any of its risks in order to make a profit (a) partnership (b) proprietorship (c) entrepreneurship (d) dictatorship

SSS 2 Mathematics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.A       2.B       3.C       4.D       5.D  

6.A       7.C       8.B       9.A       10.C    

11.D     12.C     13.C     14.A     15.B

16.A     17.A     18.A     19.A     20.D    

21.A     22.B     23.A     24.C     25.C

26.A     27.A     28.C     29.B     30.B    

31.A     32.C     33.B     34.B     35.C    

36.B     37.A     38.C     39.A     40.B

41.C     42.B     43.D     44.C     45.B

46.C     47.B     48.A     49.A     50.B

51.C     52.A     53.B     54.A     55.B

56.A     57.C     58.B     59.A     60.C

THEORY

1a.  Define distribution and state types

1b.  Highlights 3 functions of marketing board

1c.Define the following term – Marketing, Food Processing, industries, Facilitators, Bank

2a. Mention types of banks you know and explain

2b. Define Warehousing and explain 2 types

2c. Enumerate 4 differences between central bank and commercial bank

3a. Define distribution channel and state 2 types

3b.  State 3 functions of commercial banks

3c. Mention 5 examples of direct marketing sales and indirect marketing sales

4a. Define Entrepreneurship and state types, explain

4b. Define Market Union and 4 responsibilities

4c. Define transportation and state factors affection choice of transportation

SS2 Mathematics Examination Question For Third Term

      SENIOR CLASS TWO ( S.S.S. 2)

MATHEMATICS 1^ST – 3^RD TERM EXAM

SECTION A: OBJECTIVES

1. A way of expressing numbers in the form A x 10^x where 1< A < 10 and x is an integer, is said to be a (a) form (b) standard (c) standard form
2. Express 0.08356 in standard form is___(a) 8.356 x 10^-2  (b) 08.356 x 10^-2  (c) 80.356 x 10^-2
3. Evaluate 4.72 x 10³ + 3.648 x 10³ leaving your answer in standard form is ___(a) 8.368 x10² (b) 8.368 x10³ (c) 8.468 x10³
4. The number  before the decimal point in the logarithm is called____(a) fraction (b) mantissa (c) integer fraction
5. The number that appears after the decimal point is called____(a) fraction (b) mantissa (c) integer fraction
6. Evaluate 3.53³ __(a) 44.00 (b) 45.00 (c) 404.00
7. Simplify this number .7675 + 2.4536 in bar notation is ____ (a) 6.201 (b) 6.221 (c) 6.121
8. Simplify this number 6.8053 – 4.1124 in bar notation is ____ (a) 12.6929 (b) 13.6929 (c) 14.6929
9. Suppose the length of the same room is measured to the nearest cm ,280cm i.e. (280cm) calculate the percentage error. (a) 0.168% (b) 0.188% (c) 0.178%
10. Calculate the percentage error if The capacity of a bucket is 7.5 litres to 1 d.p. (a) 0.67% (b) 0.77% (c) 0.68%
11. Calculate the percentage error if The mass of a student is 62kg to 2 s.f. (a) 0.91% (b) 0.81% (c) 0.801%
12. Find the 6^th terms of the sequence whose nth term is (2n + 1) __(a) 12 (b) 11 (c) 13
13. Find the 9^th terms of the sequence whose nth term is 3 – 5n. (a) +42 (b) -42 (c) -45
14. A sequence in which the terms either increase or decrease in equal steps is called an___(a) Set (b) Geometric progression (c) Arithmetic progression
15. Given the A.P, 9, 12, 15, 18 …… find the 50^th term. (a) 156 (b) 158 (c) 157
16. A sequence in which the terms either increase or decrease in a common ratio is called a___(a) Set (b) Geometric progression (c) Arithmetic progression
17. Given the GP 5, 10, 20, 40. Find its 9^th term. (a) 1280 (b) 1290 (c) 1291
18. Find two numbers whose difference is 5 and whose product is 266. (a) X=13,X=-19 (b) X=14,X=+19 (c) X=14,X=-19
19. Solve for x and y in the equations 2x +5y= 1  and 3x – 2y =30 (a) y =-3 , x=8 (b) y =+3 , x=7 (c) y =-3 , x=9
20. Seven cups and eight plates cost N1750, eight cups and seven plates cost N1700. Calculate the cost of a cup and a plate. (a) Each cup cost N90 and each plate cost N120 (b) Each cup cost N90 and each plate cost N140 (c) Each cup cost N40 and each plate cost N144
21. The gradient (or slope) of a straight line is a measure of the steepness of the___(a) Row (b) Weight (c) Line
22. The tangents to a circle from external points are equal. (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe
23. Calculate the length of an arc if the radius of an arc is 8 cm and the central angle is 40° (a) 5.582cm (b) 5.482cm (c) 55.582cm
24. A 216 sector of a circle of radius 5cm is bent to form a cone. Find the radius of the base of the cone (a) 2cm (b) 3cm (c) 4cm
25. A____ is a collection of points where all the points are equidistant from the given point called the centre (a) circumference (b) circle (c) radius
26. The boundary of the circle is known as the (a) distance (b) radius (c) circumference
27. The line from the centre ”O” of the circle to the circumference of the circle is called the__(a) distance (b) radius (c) circumference
28. ___ length is better defined as the distance along the part of the circumference of any circle or any curve (a) arc (b) distance (c) cord
29. The endpoints between any straight line distance in the length of an arc is called____(a) radius (b) chord (c) diameter
30. The number of tangents that can be drawn to a circle at a point on the circle is__ (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1
31. A point P(x,y) moves in XY plane such that x=acos2θ and y=2asinθ, where θ is a parameter. The locus of the point P is___(a) circle (b) ellipse (c) unbounded (d) part of parabola
32. Multiply (x + 3y + 5) by (2×2 + 5y + 2) (a) 2x² + 3yx² + 10xy + 15y² + 13y + 10x² + 2x + 10 (b) 2x³ + 6yx² + 5xy + 15y² + 31y + 5x² + 2x + 10 (c) 2x³ + 6xy² + 5xy + 15y² + 12y + 10x² + 2x = 10
33. Calculate the volume of a cone 14cm in base diameter and 24cm high. (a) 1332cm³ (b) 1232cm³ (c) 12232cm³
34. Calculate the surface area of a hallow cylinder which is closed at one end, if the base radius is 3.5cm and the height 8cm.[take π = 22/7] (a) 126.5cm² (b) 165cm²  (c) 176cm²  (d)  214.5cm²
35. The ratio of the angles of a triangle is 3:4:5. Find the smallest and the largest angles. (a) 45^o, 75^o (b) 55^o, 75^o   (c) 75^o, 45^o
36. The sum of 378 and 113 is less than the difference between 18 and 123 by (a) 3²/3  (b) 5 ¼  (c) 6 ½
37. Construct a cyclic quadrilateral XYZW such that XY=4.8 cm,YZ=6.4 cm,∠ZXY=25∘ and ∠XZW=40∘. Then, length of the longer diagonal is__(a) 13.9cm (b) 12.cm9 (c) 14.9cm
38. Construct a ΔXYZ where ∠XYZ=60∘, XY=5 cm and XZ=4.5 cm. How many such triangles are possible? (a) 3 (b) 2 (c)1
39. Radius of a circle with centre ‘O’ is 5 cm. P is a point at a distance of 3 cm from ‘O’. Then the number of tangents that can be drawn to the circle is___(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 3 (d) 4
40. Find the range of value of x for which 7x – 6 ≥ 15 (a) x≥2 (b) x≥3 (c) x≥1
41. In triangle ABC, A= 38⁰, B = 27⁰, and b = 17cm. Find A. (a) 24cm (b) 25cm (c) 23cm
42. In triangle ABC, A= 38⁰, B = 27⁰, and b = 17cm. Find C. (a) 33cm (b) 34cm (c) 37cm
43. Convert 10⁰ to minutes is__(a) 650mins (b) 600mins (c) 450mins
44. ____ are often measured to the nearest degree (a) degrees (b) percentage (c) Angles
45. What is the algebraic  fraction

                   n² – 9          X        n² – 3n + 2

                   n² – n                     n² +  n –  6

 (a)   (n – 3)         (b)     n          (c)   (n + 3)      (d)  n                    

      n                    (n – 3)              n               (n + 3)           

• If the ratio x:y = 3:5, and y:z= 4:7. Find the ratio x:y:z? (a) 15:28:84 (b) 12:20:35 (c) 3:5:4 (d) 5:4:7
• Find the value of X/₂ for which the fraction is not defined. (a) +2 (b) -2 (c) +2  (d) +3
• Evaluate   –  +   (a)  (a)  (a)  (a) 
• Evaluate   X   (a)  (a)  (a)  (a) 
• A bag contains 3 red balls, 4 blues balls 5 white balls and 6 black balls. A ball is picked at Random, what is the probability that it is either: Red or blue  (a) 7/20          (b) 7/19         (c) 7/18            (d) 7/17          
• A bag contains 3 red balls, 4 blues balls 5 white balls and 6 black balls. A ball is picked at Random, what is the probability that it is either:  Blue or black  (a)5/9 (b)6/9       (c)7/9        (d)8/9
• The variable with the highest occurrence or which appears most in an event is known as the  ______ (a)Median (b)Mode (c)Range (d)mean
• the subtraction of the highest frequency and the lowest frequency is _______ (a)Median (b)Mode (c)Range (d)mean
• Find the average age of the following distribution:1.23, 2.32, 1.17, 2, 3.11, 2.11and 2.12   (a) 4 (b)3 (c)2 (d)1
• Calculate the median of the distribution:

2, 6, 4, 5, 5, 8, 8, 6, 6, 5, 9, 9, 2, 7, 4, 6, 3, 5, 6, 2, 7, 2, 9, 8, 10,6    (a)6 (b)7 (c)8 (d)9

• Calculate the mean ) 2.2, 2.5, 2.2, 1.6, 1.8, 2.7, and 1.4  (a)4.06  (b)2.06 (c)1.06 (d)0.06

FILL IN THE SPACE WITH THE CORRECT ANSWER

Trigonometrical ratio:	Surd form:	Approximation
sin 30o		0.5
sin 45o	1 / root 2
sin 60o		0.866

• Tan 45⁰

SSS 2 Mathematics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C      2.A      3.B      4.C      5.B  

6.A      7.B      8.A      9.C      10.A   

11.B    12.C    13.B    14.C    15.A

16.B    17.A    18.C    19.A    20.B   

21.C    22.A    23.A    24.B    25.B

26.C    27.B    28.A    29.B    30.C   

31.D    32.B   33.B    34.D    35.A   

36.A    37.B    38.C    39.A    40.B

41.C    42.B    43.B    44.C    45.A

46.C    47.B    48.A    49.C    50.C

51.A    52.B    53.C    54.C    55.A

56.B    57.1/2 58.0.7071        59.√³/2   60.1

SECTION B THEORY

A. Evaluate the following leaving your answer in standard form

• 4.72 x 10³ + 3.648 x 10³

(ii)6.142  x  10⁵ + 7.32 x 10⁴

(iii)             7.113 x 10^-5–  8.13 x 10^-6

Solution

i.                  4.72 x 10³ + 3.648 x 10³                      

              = [ 4.72 + 3.648 ] x 10³

=  8.368 x10³  

ii.             =   6.142 x 10⁵+  7.32 x 10⁴

                 =   6.142 x 10⁵+  0.732 x 10⁵

=  [6.142 + 0.732 ] x 10⁵

=  6.874 x 10⁵

iii.             =   7.113 x 10^-5 – 8.13 x 10^-6

                 =    7.113 x 10^-5 – 0.813 x 10^-5

=  [ 7.113 – 0.813 ] x 10^-5

=  6.3 x 10^-5

Simplify : √[P/Q], leaving your answer in standard form given that P = 3.6 x 10^-3 and

 Q = 4 x 10^-8.

Solution

                             = √[P/Q]

3.6 x 10^-3

                             =        4 x 10^-8

                             =        / 36 x 10^-4

                                     √ 4 x 10^-8

                             =      √ 9 x 10^{-4 –(-8)}

                             =   3 x (10⁴) ^½

Use tables (log) to find the complete logarithm of the following numbers.

(a)  80030     (b)  8      (c)  135.80

Solution

(a)  80030  =          4.9033

(b)  8          =          0.9031

(c)  13580  =          2.1329

                          =   3 x 10²

B. Evaluate using logarithm.

1.   4627 x 29.3

2.   8198  ÷  3.905

3.   48.63  x  8.53

            15.39

Solutions

1.   4627 x 29.3                

                              No         Log

                              4627         3.6653

                              X 29.3    + 1.4669

antilog →   135600     5.1322

                  \   4627 x 29.3 = 135600

To find the Antilog of the log 5.1322 use the antilogarithm table:

Check 13 under 2 diff 2 (add the value of the difference) the number is 0.1356. To place the decimal point at the appropriate place, add one to the integer of the log i.e. 5 + 1 = 6 then shift the decimal point of the antilog figure to the right (positive) in 6 places.

                                           =    135600

Find the complete log of the following.

(a)        0.004863     (b)  0. 853    (c)  0.293

Solution

Log 0.004863               =           3.6369

Log 0.0853                  =          2.9309

Log 0.293                    =          1.4669

Evaluate the following using the logarithm tables;

1.         0.6735 x 0.928

2.         0.005692 ¸ 0.0943

3.         0.6104³

4.         4   0.00083

5.         3  0. 06642

Solution

1.         0.6735 x 0.928

            No.                  Log.__

            0.6735             1.8283

            0.928               1.9675

            0.6248                         1.7958

            \ 0.6735 x 0.928     =         0.6248

2.         0.005692 ¸  0.0943

No                   Log

            0.005692         3.7553

            ¸ 0.0943          2.9745

    0.06037               2.7808

3.         0.6104³

            No                   Log_____

            0.6104³            1.7856 x 3

            0.2274              1.3568

            \  0.6104³      = 0.2274

            \  0.005692  ¸   0.943 =  0.6037

4.         4   0.00083

            No.                              Log._____

4  0.00083                   4.9191  ¸ 4

            0.1697                          1.2298

\ 4   0.06642  =0.1697

5.         3  0.06642

            No.                              Log.____________

3  0.06642                     2.8223 ¸ 3

                                                3 )  2 + 0.8223

                                                3 )  3 + 1.8223

                                                1 + 0.6074

            0.405                           1.6074

 

              30.6642         =          0.405

C. The length of a field is measured as 500m; find the percentage error of the length if the room is measured to

i.          nearest metre      ii.      nearest 10m         iii.     one significant figure.

Solutions

i.          To the  nearest  metre

            Measurement = 500m

            Actual measurement = between 499.5 – 500.5

            Error =  + 0.5m

            % error =            error        x 100

                        measurement

            0.5  x  100         =   0.10%

            500      1

                                    =    0.10%

ii.          Nearest 10m

            Measurement = 500m,

            range= 495m – 505m

            error  =+ 5m

            error  =   5    x   100    =   1%

                         500        1

iii.         To 1 s.f.

            measurement   =  500m

            range   =   450 – 550

            error   =   +  50

            % error  =  50   x    100    =  10%

                                500          1

Find the 6^th and 9^th terms of the sequence whose nth term is

(a)        (2n + 1)

(b)        3 – 5n.

Solution

(a)        2n + 1

            6^th term            =   2(6) + 1   = 12 + 1 = 13

            9^th term            =   2 (9) + 1  = 18 + 1 = 19

(b)        3 – 5n

            6^th term            = 3 – 5 (6) = 3 – 30 = -27

            9^th term            = 3 – 5 (9) = 3 – 45 = -42

The 43^rd term of an AP is 26, find the 1^st term of the progression given that its common difference is ½ and also find the 50^th term.

Solution U₄₃=  26       d          =  ½                a          =  ?          n   = 43

U_n = a + (n-1) d

26 = a + (43-1) ½

26 = a + 42(¹/₂)

26 = a + 21

26 – 21 = a

5 = a

a = 5

(b)        a      =  5              d      = ½           n = 50     U₅₀   =?

            U_n         =          a + (n-1) d

            U₅₀       =          5 + (50-1)¹/₂

                        =          5 + 49(¹/₂)

            U₅₀       =          5 + 24¹/₂

            U₅₀       =          29¹/₂

Given the GP 5, 10, 20, 40. Find its (a) 9^th term (b) nth term

Solution

a = 5         r  = 10/5  =  2

U₉         =   ar^n-1

U₉         =   5 (2) ^9-1

            =   5 (2)⁸

            =   5 x 256   = 1,280

(b)        U_n = ar^n-1

                  = 5(2) ^n-1

D. Tina is 3 times older than her daughter. In four years time, the product of their ages will be 1536. How old are they now?

Solution

Let the daughter’s age be x.

Tina’s age = 3x

In four years’ time,

Daughter’s age = (x+4)years

Tina’s age = (3x+4)years

The product of their ages :

 (x+4)(3x+4)= 1536

3x²+ 16x – 1520 = 0

(x-20)(3x+76) = =0

 x=20 or x=-25.3

Since age cannot be negative, x=20years.

:. Daughter’s age = 20years.

 Tina’s age = 20×3=60years.

E. Solve the following equations simultaneously

            2 –   1 =  3    and         4  +   3    =   16

            x      y                          x       y 

Solution

            2   –    1    =    3

            x        y

            4   +     3     =    16 

            x          y

Instead of using x and y as the unknown, let the unknown be (¹/_x) an (¹/_y).

2(¹/_x) –  (¹/_y)  =  3                     …………….         eqn 1

4 (¹/_x) – 3 (¹/_y)   =  16   ……………          eqn 2

Using elimination method, multiply equation 1 by 2 to eliminate x.

4(¹/_x) – 2(¹/_y)  =   6      ……………..     eqn 3

4 (¹/_x) + 3(¹/_y) =   16    …………….         eqn 4

            -5 (¹/_y)   =   -10

               -5                  -5

            1   =    2

            y

            \   y = ½

Substitute (1/y) = 2   into eqn 1

2 (¹/_x) – (¹/_y) = 3

2 (¹/_x) – (2) = 3

2(¹/_x) = 3 + 2

2 (¹/_x) =   5    

1     =       5

x             2

\ x   = ²/₅

\ y = ½,  x  =  ²/₅

F. The product of two numbers is 12. The sum of the larger number and twice the smaller number is 11. Find the two numbers.

Solution

 Let    x  = the larger number

y  = the smaller number

Product,  x y  =  12    …………….eq1

      From the last statement,

                          x + 2y  =  11  ………….. eq2

       From eq2,   x  =  11 – 2y   ……………eq3

       Sub. Into  eq1

y(11 – 2y) = 12

                            11y – 2y2  = 12

                             2y2 -11y + 12 = 0

                            2y2 – 8y – 3y + 12 = 0

                             2y(y-4) – 3(y-4) = 0

                              (2y-3)(y-4)  =0

                               2y-3 =0 or  y-4 =0

                                 2y = 3 or   y = 4

                                   y= 3/2 or 4

when y = 3/2                                             when  y=4

        x = 11 – 2y                                      x = 11- 2y

        x = 11 – 2(3/2)                                  x = 11 – 2(4)

        x = 11 – 3                                           x = 11 – 8

         x = 8                                                  x = 3

Therefore, (8 , 3/2)(3 , 4)

G. Find the gradient of the line joining (-4, 6) and (3, 0)

Solution

Let m = gradient,

(x₁, y₁) = (-4, 6) and (x₂, y₂) = (3 , 0)

m =

H. Copy and complete the following table of values for the relation y= 2x² – 7x-3.

X	-2	1-	0	1	2	3	4	5
Y	19		-3		-9

b) Using 2cm to 1unit on the x-axis and 2cm to 5units on the y-axis, draw the graph of y= 2x² -7x-3 for -2x≤5.

c) From your graph, find the:

i. minimum value of y.

ii. the equation of the line of symmetry.

iii. the gradient of the curve at x=1.

I. Solve the inequality  12x -7 ≥ 13 + 2x

Solution

12x-2x ≥ 13+7

10x ≥ 20

x ≥ 2

Solve the inequality and show the Solution on a number line.

1. x + 4 < 6
2. 6  <  2x – 1
3. 3x – 3 > 7

Solution

(1) x + 4 < 6

x < 6 – 4

x  < 2

x

-2       -1      0      1      2       3

(2) 6 <   2x – 14

7   <   2x

3 ½  <  x

X  >  3 ½

x   >  3 ½

3 ½

(3) 3x – 3 > 7

3x > 7 + 3

3x > 10

x  > 10/3

x   > 3

x   >  3 ½

-2    -1  0   1   2   3   3 1/3    4     5    6   7

Find the side of the triangle marked x. correct to 2 S.F.G in the figure below.

SOLUTION:

tan ø = opp/adj = xcm/8cm

tan ø = x/8,  ø = tan 40 x 8

ø = 0.8391×8

ø = 6.7128;  ø = 6.7( 2 s.f.g)

Trigonometrical ratio:	Surd form:	Approximation
sin 30o	1 / 2	0.5
sin 45o	1 / root 2	0.7071
sin 60o	root 3 / 2	0.866
cos 30o	root 3 / 2	0.866
cos 45	1 / root 2	0.7071
cos 60o	1 / 2	0.5
tan 30o	1 / root 3	0.5774
tan 45o	1
tan 60o	root 3	1.7321

A bag contains 3 red balls, 4 blues balls 5 white balls and 6 black balls. A ball is picked at

Random, what is the probability that it is either:

• Red or blue
• Blue or black
• Red, white or blue
• Blue, white or black
• Neither red nor

Solution

            P(R) = 3/18      P(B) = 4/18      P(W) = 5/18,   P(BK) =6/18

            (a)Pro(either red or blue)  =    3/18    +     4/18    = 7/18         

            (b) Pro(blue or black)  =  4/18    6/18

=  10/18    =  5/9

             (c)P(red white or blue) = P(r) +P(w) + P(blue)

                                                     =    3/18  +  4/18   +  5/18

                                                      =12/18    =    2/3

(d)  P(blue, white or black) = P(blue)  + P(white) + P(black)

                                             = 4/18  +   5/18   +   6/18

                                             =  15/18   =   5/6

            (e)P(neither Red or blue) = P(R or blue)¹

                                              =   1-P(R or blue)

                                                 = 1-   7/18

                                               =  11/18

Worked Example 2

A letter is choosen at random from the word “COMPUTER” what the probability that it is

(a)        either in the word cut or in the word ROPE

(b)        neither in the word MET nor in the word UP?

Solution:

            n(s) = 8

(a)        P (either word CUT or ROPE) =

            P (CUT) + P(ROPE)

                = 3/8   +   4/8

                 = 7/8

(b)     P(MET +UP)¹ =    1-    5/8         =     3/8

The table below gives the scores of a group of students in a mathematics test

SCORES	2	3	4	5	6	7
Number of Students	2	4	7	2	3	2

Calculate the mean mark of the distribution:

Solution (Method,1)

Mean = ∑Fx= ( 2X 2) + (3 X 4) + (4 X 7) + ( 6X 3) + ( 7X2)

              ∑F                           2 + 4 + 7 + 2 + 3 + 2

                             = 4 + 12 + 28 + 18 + 14

                                               20

                             = 86 = 4.3

                                20

The distributions of the waiting time for some students in a school is given as follows:

 Waiting Time (minuetes)                                   Number of customers

             1.5 – 1.9                                                                         3

             2.0 – 2.4                                                                        10

             2.5 – 2.9                                                                        18

             3.0 – 3.4                                                                        10

             3.5 – 3.9                                                                         7

             4.0 – 4.4                                                                         2

Calculate the mean time of the distribution:

Solution: Prepare a simple frequency distribution table for a grouped data:

Time intervals    (Minuetes)	Mid Time (x)	No of Students Frequencies	Fx
1.5 – 1.9	1.7	3	5.1
2.0 – 2.4	2.2	10	22.0
2.5 – 2.9	2.7	18	48.6
3.0 – 3.4	3.2	10	32.0
3.5 – 3.9	3.7	7	25.9
4.0 – 4.4	4.2	2	8.4
		∑ f = 50	∑fx=142.0

Mean Time (Average Time) = ∑fx= 142.0 = 2.8 minutes

                                                  ∑f        50

SS2 Physics Examination Question For Third Term

      SENIOR CLASS TWO ( S.S.S. 2)

PHYSICS   1^ST – 3^RD TERM EXAM

SECTION A: FIRST TERM QUESTIONS

1. A phenomenon which is used to describe the process by which a substance changes from solid to gas is called (a) evaporation (b) freezing (c) sublimation (d) melting (e) vaporization
2. A phenomenon which is used to describe the process by which a substance changes from liquid  to vapour is called (a) evaporation (b) freezing (c) sublimation (d) melting (e) vaporization
3. The constant temperature at which a substance changes state from liquid to solid is called    (a) freezing point (b) melting point (c)boiling point (d)heating point
4. Melting point is a temperature at which a solid substance has its bond broken such that it now flows as liquid. (a) freezing point (b) melting point (c)boiling point (d)heating point
5. What effect will reducing the surface pressure of a liquid have on its boiling point? (a) increase its boiling point (b) reduces its boiling point (c) it does not have effect (d) increases its boiling point by 5⁰C (e) none of the above
6. Which of the following statement is true about evaporation (a) evaporation occurs at all temperature except at boiling points (b) evaporation only occurs at boiling point (c) evaporation occurs at all temperature (d) all of the above (e) none of the above
7. Impurities change the boiling points of liquid. So, salt added to water will (a) increase its boiling point (b) reduces its boiling point (c) it does not have effect (d) reduces its boiling point by 5⁰C(e) none of the above
8. Which of the following is the correct SI unit of specific latent heat? (a) Jkgk (b) Jkg^-1k-¹ (c) Jkgk^-1 (d) Jkg^-1 (e) Jkg
9. The heat required to change 1kg of ice at 0⁰C to water at the same temperature is called (a) specific latent heat of vaporization (b) specific heat capacity (c) specific latent heat of fusion (d) heat capacity (e) specific heat capacity
10. The equation P^xV^yT^z = constant is Boyle’s law if (a) x=0, y=0, z=1 (b) x=1, y=0, z=0 (c) x=1, y=1, z=0 (d) x=1, y=1, z=1 (e) x=1, y=1, z=-1
11. A fixed mass of gas of volume 600cm³ at a temperature of 27⁰C is cooled at constant pressure to a temperature of 0⁰C. What is the change in volume? (a) 54cm³(b) 273cm³ (c) 300cm³(d) 546cm³ (e) 600cm³
12. A fixed mass of gas occupies a volume of 20cm3 at a fixed pressure of 700mmHg. Assuming that the temperature remains constant, what will be the volume of the gas at 750mmHg?  (a) 2.5cm³ (b) 15.5cm³ (c) 18.7cm³ (d) 21.4cm³ (e) 72.5cm³
13.  _____ is an agent that changes or tends to change the state of rest or of uniform motion on a straight line of a body (a)force (b)motion (c)friction (d)movement
14. ______ is the movement of an object from one place to another at a particular time  (a)force (b)motion (c)friction (d)movement
15. Force that are in contact with the body they affect are called _____ (a)contact force (b)force field (c)non- contact force (d)gravitational force
16. Force whose sources does not required contact with the body on which they act is called _______  (a)contact force (b)force field (c) non-contact force (d)gravitational force
17. If 1.13 X 10⁶J of heat energy is required to convert 15kg of steam to water. Calculate the specific latent heat of vaporization of steam (a)7533Jkg  (b) 7500Jkgn (c) 7870Jkg  (d) 8245Jkg
18. The law that states that the pressure of a fixed mass of gas varies inversely as the  volume at constant temperature is called ______ (a)boyle’s law (b)Charle’s law (c)pressure law (d)general gas law
19. _____ states that for a fixed mass of gas at constant pressure, the volume is proportional to its absolute temperature (a)boyle’s law (b)Charle’s law (c)pressure law (d)general gas law
20. When  two bodies collide and then move with different velocities (a)elastic collision (b)inelastic collision (c)momentum (d)displacement
21. Which of the following is not an effect of heat? A. expansion B. contraction C. change of state. D.  increase in weight
22. Temperature can be measured in the following units except A. degree Celsius B. kelvin C. degree Fahrenheit D. centigrade-meter
23. When heat is extracted from water it changes from liquid to gas. What is this process called____(a) vaporization (b) evaporation (c) condensation
24. The process of by which a gas is converted to a solid is called____(a) sublimation (b) deposition (c) vaporize
25. Fahrenheit is a unit for_____ (a) heat (b) gas (c) temperature (a) water
26. ____ of a substance is defined as the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of a substance through 1°C. (a) special heat capacity (b) specific heat capacity (c) molar heat capacity
27. _____ of a substance is defined as the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 mole of a substance through 1° C (a) special heat capacity (b) specific heat capacity (c) molar heat capacity
28. There are ____ types of heat capacities (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3
29. ____ The heat supplied to a system to raise its temperature through 1° C keeping the volume of the system constant is called (a) heat capacity at constant pressure (b) heat capacity at constant volume (c) thermodynamics
30. The heat supplied to a system to raise its temperature through1° C keeping the external pressure constant is called__(a) heat capacity at constant pressure (b) heat capacity at constant volume (c) thermodynamics
31. An electric heater rated 12V is used to heat 450g of water when a current of 5A was passed through it. What is the final temperature after 30minutes?  [Specific capacity of water = 4200 JKg^-1K^-1] (a) 57k (b) 20k (c) 57k (d) 80k (e) 40k
32. If the pressure of the vapor on top of an enclosed liquid is equal to the atmospheric pressure, what will be the temperature of the liquid enclosed? (a) room temperature (b) boiling point (c) freezing point (d) standard temperature
33. 200g of water at 90°C is mixed with 100g of water at 30°C. What is the final temperature? (a) 50^oC (b) 60^oC (c) 70^oC (d) 80^oC
34. Which of the following is not used to determine the heat content of a body? (a) mass of the body (b) volume of the body (c) specific heat capacity of the body (d) temperature of the body (e) all of the above
35. A____ is an instrument used in measuring the quantity of heat (a) Barometer (b) Aerometer (c) anemometer (d) calorimeter
36.   ____ is defined as the process of reducing heat hot to the surrounding (a) lagging (b) calorimeter (c) regnant (d) capacity
37. Calculate the heat capacity of a mass 258g if its specific heat capacity is 900JKg^-1K^-1 (a) Cp = 232200JK^-1  (b) Cp = 252200JK^-1 (c) Cp = 2200JK^-1
38. A phenomenon which is used to describe the process by which a substance changes from solid to gas is called (a) evaporation (b) freezing (c) sublimation (d) melting (e) vaporization
39. What effect will reducing the surface pressure of a liquid have on its boiling point? (a) increase its boiling point (b) reduces its boiling point (c) it does not have effect (d) increases its boiling point by 5⁰C (e) none of the above
40. Which of the following statement is true about evaporation (a) evaporation occurs at all temperature except at boiling points (b) evaporation only occurs at boiling point (c) evaporation occurs at all temperature (d) all of the above (e) none of the above
41. This change in the direction of the light of the light ray which is due to difference in the speed of light in different media is called____(a) refraction (b) current (c) velocity
42. The velocities of light in air and glass are 3.0 x10⁸ m/s and 1.8 x10⁸ m/s respectively. Calculate     the sine of the angle of incidence that will produce an angle of refraction of 30⁰ for a ray of     light incident on glass A. 1.2   B.  1.0 C . 0.8   D.  0.6
43. The absolute refractive indexes of glass and water are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively. The       refractive at the interface when a ray travels from water to glass is A ½ B 8/9 C 9/8 D17/12
44. The angle between the incident ray and the emergent ray is known as the angle of___(a) elevation (b) deviation (c) deficiency (d) extraction
45. The angle of deviation ____ as the angle of incidence ______ (a) increase , decreases (b) decreases , increase (c) increase, increase
46. The reciprocal of a lens is called …(a) Principal axis    (b) power  (c ) bi-convex   (d) optical centre
47. ………….. is the distance between optical centre and the principal focus of a lens  Optical centre     (b) focal length   (c ) principal axis  (d) radius of curvature
48. An object placed 36cm from a converging lens of a focal length 24cm, forms a real image which is 6cm high. What is the height of the object.  (a) 4cm  (b) 3cm (c) 2cm (d) 12cm
49. An object is placed 20cm from a converging lens.  If the real image formed is 80cm. find the focal length of the lens? (a) 15cm (b) 30cm (c) 10cm  (d) 16cm
50. For correcting long sight defects in the human eyes, we require ………..(a) Converging lens       (b) diverging lens  (c) microscope  (d) periscope.
51. Which of the following optical instruments does not make use of a lens?  (a) projector           (b)periscope    (c ) eye    (d) microscope.
52. The ability of the eye to focus object at different distances is called ……..(a) Power (b) power of accommodations     (c) normal vision  (d) long sight
53. ………. Waves are set up in pipes   (a) Stationary (b) longitudinal      (c) transverse   (d) electromagnetic.
54. Binocular vision_____ (a) Restricts the field of view        (b)   Enables a person to see further (c ) Enables objects to be seen in relief     (d)Enables objects to be seen clearly.
55. The separation of white light into its constituent colour is known as___ (a) deviation (b) defraction   (c) dispersion   (d) deflection
56. The light of one wavelength or colour is called____  (a) yellow light  (b) green light  (c) monochromatic light  (d) blue light
57. In a pure spectrum, what is the function of the lens near the length source?    (a) to separate the light colours (b) to produce parallel rays (c) to diverge the light rays      (d )to produce dispersion necessary for the spectrum
58. Sound wave differs from water wave………  (a) energy transfer is involve      (b) they can be refracted and reflected (c) no transfer of the medium is involved   (d) They are longitudinal wave.
59. The speed of sound traveling in various media increases in the following correct order.  (a) Iron bar, air, water (b) air, iron bar, water  (c) air, water, iron bar (d) water, iron bar, air.
60. A noise of frequency 2000Hz has a velocity of 400m/s. What is the wavelength of the  noise? (a) 0.02m   (b) 0.25m ( c ) 0.2m  (d) 2m

SSS 2 Physics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C      2.A      3.A      4.C      5.B  

6.C      7.A      8.E       9.C      10.E    

11.A    12.C    13.A    14.B    15.A

16.C    17.A    18.A    19.B    20.A   

21.D    22.A    23.B    24.A    25.A

26.B    27.C    28.A    29.B    30.A   

31.C    32.B   33.C    34.C    35.D   

36.A    37.A    38.C    39.B    40.E

41.A    42.C    43.C    44.B    45.B

46.B    47.B    48.C    49.D    50.A

51.B    52.B    53.C    54.C    55.C

56.C    57.B    58.A    59.C    60.D

THEORY SECTION A

1a. Define Elastic collision

1b. Inelastic collision

1c. Differentiate between boiling and evaporation

2a. LIST 5 TYPES OF MACHINE

2b. MENTION 3 TERMINOLOGIES OF MACHINE

2c. Define the following

1. Latent heat of fusion
   1. Latent heat of vaporization
   1. Latent heat 

3a. Differentiate between heat and temperature.

3b. Define heat and list 3 effects of heat

3c. Define  heat capacity?

THEORY SECTION B

1a. Define Specific Heat capacity With Formula, S.I.

1b. Define evaporation and What is boiling?

1c. Differences between boiling and evaporation

2a. State three types of eye defect and the types of lenses for correction.

2b. State three types of optical instruments.

2c. A ray of light passes from air  through a rectangular block of glass with parallel side 4.5 cm apart at an angle of incidence of 52⁰,find  (a) The lateral displacement of the ray (b) The angle of refraction (Refractive index of glass=1.5)

3a. Draw and eye and label it

3b. Explain the term ‘dispersion’

3c. A converging lens of focal length 15cm forms a virtual image at a point 10cm from the lens. Calculate the distance of the object from the lens ANS-3OCM On left side of the lens

SS2 Yoruba Examination Question For Third Term

SENIOR CLASS TWO ( S.S.S. 2)

EDE – YORUBA 3^RD TERM EXAM