SS1 Examination Questions For Second Term

Senior Secondary School Questions Term 2 Year 10. SS1 Examination Questions and answers for second term Obj and Theory –Edudelight Exam

Agricultural Science SS1 Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

AGRICULTURAL – SCIENCE

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

All these farm animals are polygastric animals except A. cattle B. goat C. rabbit D. sheep
The branch of ecology which deals with the study of a single species of organism and its interaction with the environment is known as… A. autecology B. synecology C. entomology D. pathology
Climatic factors include the following except… A. wind B. sunlight C. rocks D. rainfall
____ involves the cultivation of crops and rearing of animals simultaneously on the same piece of farmland. A. Mixed cropping B. Mixed farming C. Bushfallowing D. Pastoral farming
The animal dungs and droppings are used as ………to improve the soil fertility for the crops. A. inorganic manure B. organic manure C. moisture D. mulch
____ is a group of organisms mainly farm animals which cannot manufacture their own food but depend directly or indirectly on plants for their food (a) ecology (b) autotrophism (c) heterotrophism
____ is a group of organisms which makes use of sunlight or chemicals to manufacture their food from inorganic substance during the process of photosynthesis. (a) ecology (b) autotrophism (c) heterotrophism
All are inorganic materials and nutrients except____(a) oxygen (b) nitrogen (c) water
All are examples of Edaphic factors except____(a) storm (b) soils (c) rocks
Which of the following is not a sedimentary rock? A. mica B. sandstone C. limestone D. dolomite
Granite is ——— rock A. igneous B. sedimentary C. metamorphic D. weathered
Schist is formed from A. shale B. sandstone C. quartzite D. coal
A metamorphic limestone is A. marble B. gneiss C. schist D. shale
The type of rock formed from molten magma is known as_ A. sedimentary B. schist C. igneous D. sandstone
The attachment of water to rock minerals resulting in chemical alternation of the minerals is termed A. carbonation B. hydration C. hydrolysis D. solution
The reaction of rock with oxygen from the atmosphere which eventually weakens the soil is A. carbonation B. oxidation C. hydrolysis D. solution
Which of these is not an agent of physical weathering A. ice B. water C. animal D. temperature
Which of the following is not a soil organism that disintegrates rock particles A. termite B. earthworm C. cattle D. millipede
____ is defined as the disintegration of rocks into smaller particles to form soil. A. Chemical reaction B. Weather C. Weathering D. Breaking down
The average weather condition of a place over a period of time is referred to as__A. Climate B. Vegetation C. Biotic factor D. Humidity
Which of these is not a climatic factor of soil formation? A. Temperature B. Wind C. Humidity D. Erosion
The following are biotic factors influencing soil formation except A. Termites activities B. soil pH C. Microorganism D. Tillage activities
The shape of the ground in relation to the underlying rock of the earth surface is known as _____A. slope B. disintegration C. topography D. weathering
Which of the following is not a factor of soil formation? A. Topography B. Vegetation C .Parent material D. Weathering
————- are unwanted plants that grows on their own (a) rice (b) weeds (c) nutrients (d) manure
The removal of branches of the center and end of plant to allow sunlight is (a) irrigation (b) fertilizing (c) pruning (d) weeding
———- is the watering of plant for growth and development (a) irrigation (b) fertilizing (c) weeding (d) mulching
The following are the cultural practices associated with crop production except (a) pruning (b) fertilizing (c) planting (d) mulching
Examples of Nitrogen fertilizers are the following except___(a) N (b) P (c) K (d) S
Secondary tillage is otherwise known as ____ A. harrowing B. ploughing C. mulching D. stumping

Agricultural Science Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.A 3.C 4.B 5.B

6.C 7.B 8.C 9.A 10.A

11.A 12.A 13.A 14.C 15.B

16.C 17.B 18.C 19.C 20.A

21.D 22.D 23.C 24.B 25.B

26.C 27.A 28.C 29.D 30.A

THEORY

1a. What is Agricultural Ecology?

1b. Write short notes on the two aspects of ecology.

2a. Define ecosystem.

2b. State five examples of climatic factors

3a. What is a rock? State three types of rock

3b. Describe the mode of formation of the two types of igneous rock and four characteristics of sedimentary rocks.

4a. Define rock weathering. What are the processes of rock weathering?

4b. List 3 agents of physical weathering

5a. Define climate and state 2 major elements of climate

5b. List 3 biotic and abiotic factors of soil formation

6a. What is land clearing? And Define stumping.

6b.Define tillage and state 3 importance of tillage.

7a. What is ridging? And Germination?

7b. Differentiate between primary and secondary tillage

Biology SS1 Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

BIOLOGY

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

Which of the following is not classified as a terrestrial habitat? A. forest B. guinea savanna C. literal zone D. desert
The activities of an organism which affect the survival of another organism in a habitat can be described as__A. biotic factors. B. Abiotic factors C. climatic factor D. edaphic factors
The number of individuals of the same species interacting in a habitat at a particular time is best described as___A. community B. ecosystem C. population D. biome
A biotic community with its physical environment (abiotic factors) defines__A. ecosystem B. population C. habitat D. biosphere
The most abundant gas in the atmosphere is A. oxygen B. nitrogen C. carbon dioxide D. a rare gas
How is savanna plants protected from bush fires? They have A. sunken stomata B. thorn bark and thick barks C. soft leaves
Which of the following limiting resources is competed for by organisms in the desert? A. Light B. oxygen C. temperature D. water
Which of these is not a true characteristic of the tropical rain forest? A. Vegetation consists predominantly of tall tree with thick canopy B. forest is rich in epiphytes and climbers C. annual rainfall is less than 100 cm D. annual temperature is 27⁰c
Which of the following does not describe the coniferous forest? A. needle leaved evergreen conifers B. broad leaved evergreen conifers C. possessing few trees D. possessing cool temperate climate
Montane vegetation is described by the following except A. treeless marshy vegetation B. evergreen rainforest on slopes of mountain C. forest are less luxuriant than tropical rain forest D. afro alpine vegetation at heights above 300m on mountain
Climatic factors in an ecosystem include the following except___A. light B. wind C. temperature D. Oxygen.
Organic part of abiotic component of an ecosystem includes the following except__ A. water B. carbohydrate C. Protein d) Lipids
The ratio of population size to the area of the habitat is called___A. population size B. population density C. population frequency D. population cover
Habitat factors include all the following except A. biotic B. abiotic C. edaphic D. nature
The total number of organisms of the same species in a habitat at a particular time is called__A. population B. community C. census D. all of the above
The ultimate source of energy in nature is__ A. green plants B. moon C. star D. sun
The usable form of energy in animals is___A. chemical energy B. kinetic energy C. potential energy D. ATP
Available to photosynthetic plants is __of the solar energy. A. 1-5% B. 2-5% C. 5-15% D. 1-10%
The study of the relationship between heat energy and other forms of energy is called__. A. thermodynamics B. thermocouple C. thermosetting D. all of the above
Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can only be changed from one form to another This refers to the____A. first law of thermodynamics B. second law of thermodynamics C. third law of thermodynamics D. none of the above
___ are organisms, mainly bacteria and saprophytes responsible for the breaking down of dead organic materials which could be of plants or animals origin (a) composers (b) decomposers (c) abiotic
____ are bigger organisms that can cause decay of dead organic materials (a) macro decomposers (b) micro decomposers (c) ill
A ____ relationship is one in which one member of the association benefits A. parasitic B. symbiotic C. saprophytic D. mutualistic
Tick feeds on A. blood B. water C. mammals D. house
The word commensal means A. sharing together B. dividing C. scattering D. loving
Chemicals secreted by inhibitors is called___ A. biotics B. inhibitors C. amensal D. allochemics or allelopathic substances
____ consists of algae and fungi A. Lichen B. Bacteria C. Virus D. Fungi
The major nutrients required to sustain life include all of the following except___ (a) carbon (b) water (c) car
A decrease in the atmospheric oxygen level by 2-8% does not cause any problem but a slight increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide may cause a__house effect (a) blue (b) green (c) white (d) red
____ refers to any feature or characteristics possessed by an organism that contributes to its fitness and survival in its environment (a) ecosystem (b) movement (c) adaptation

THEORY – ANSWER ONLY 3

1a. Define Adaptation

1b. Explain Adaptation of Hydrophytes and Mesophytes

2a. Explain the Carbon cycle and state 3 importance

2b. Explain energy transformation in nature

3a. Explain thermodynamics and state the 1^st and 2^nd laws

4a. Define food web and state its levels

4b. Define ecosystem and sate 2 factors affecting population size

Biology Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.A 3.C 4.A 5.B

6.B 7.D 8.C 9.B 10.A

11.D 12.A 13.A 14.D 15.A

16.D 17.D 18.D 19.A 20.A

21.B 22.A 23.A 24.C 25.A

26.D 27.A 28.D 29.B 30.C

SS1 Chemistry Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

CHEMISTRY

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

A____is a number of particles of a substance which may be atoms, ions, molecules or electrons (a) mole (b) molecules (c) atoms
Avogadro’s number of particles means ____ (a) the number of molecules (b) number of particles in magnitude (c) number of particles in multitude
The mole is defined as the amount of a substance which contains as many elementary units as there are atoms in 12g of Carbon-12 (a) false (b) maybe (c) true
The sum of the relative atomic masses of all atoms in one molecule of that substance is called the___(a) formula one (b) formula mass (c) formula atoms
Calculate the relative molecular mass of Magnesium chloride in [Mg=24, Cl=35.5, Na=23, O=16, H=1, Ca=40,C=12] (a) 95gmol^-1 (b) 85gmol^-1 (c) 75gmol^-1
Calculate the relative molecular mass of Sodium hydroxide in [Mg=24, Cl=35.5, Na=23, O=16, H=1, Ca=40,C=12] (a) 43gmol^-1 (b) 45gmol^-1 (c) 40gmol^-1
Calculate the relative molecular mass of Calcium trioxocarbonate in [Mg=24, Cl=35.5, Na=23, O=16, H=1, Ca=40,C=12] (a) 100gmol^-1 (b) 190gmol^-1 (c) 110gmol^-1
The volume occupied by 1 mole of a gas at standard conditions of temperature and pressure (s.t.p) is __(a) 23.4 dm³ (b) 22.4 dm³ (c) 12.4 dm³
What is the relative atomic mass of potassium A. 40 B. 39 C. 32 D. 24
An element with relative atomic mass 108 is A. Ca B. Cl C. Ag D. HS
Modern standard element with which chemist define relative atomic mass is A.¹²C B.C¹³ C.³H D.¹⁶O
In a chemical equation, the reactants are always written on the right hand side while the products are written on the left hand side (a) true (b) false (c) maybe
A balanced chemical equation obeys which of the laws? A. Law of conservation of mass\matter B. Law of definite proportion C. Law of multiple proportion D. Boyle’s law
The numerical coefficients in a balanced equation give the A. number of mole of reactants and products B. molar mass of the reactants and products C. number of reactants only D. mass ratio of the reactants
A molecule of neon with only one atom is__ A. diatomic B. monoatomic C. triatomic D. polyatomic
A molecule of neon with only two atom such as hydrogen is__ A. diatomic B. monoatomic C. triatomic D. polyatomic
The balanced chemical equation for the reaction between hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide isA. NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H₂O B. NaCl + HCl → NaOH + H₂O C. NaOH + H₂SO₄ →Na₂SO₄ + H₂O D. H₂SO₄ + KOH → K₂SO₄ + H₂O
Calculate the mass of solid product obtained when 16.8g of NaHCO3 was heated strongly until there was no further change (a) 15.6g (b) 11.6g (c) 10.6g
20cm³ of CO was mixed and sparked with 200cm³ of air containing 21% of O₂. If all the volumes are measured at s.t.p, calculate the total volume of the resulting gases (a) 211cm³ (b) 210cm³ (c) 310cm³
Amount of a substance is expressed in A. mole B. grams C. kilograms D. mass
Determine the mass of CO₂produced by burning 104g of ethyne [C2H2]A. 256g B.352g C. 416g D. 512g
The mole ratio in which reactants combine and products are formed is known as A. rate of reaction B. stoichiometry of reaction C. equation of reaction D. chemical reaction
The unit for relative molecular mass is A. mole B. gmol^-1C. grams D. mass
____ formula is the formula which shows the simplest whole number ratios of atoms present in a compound (a) molecular (b) compound (c) empirical
The molecular formula is the formula which shows the actual number of each kind of atoms present in the______(a) molecule (b) compound (c) empirical
Calculate the empirical formula of an organic compound containing 81.8% carbon and 18.2% hydrogen (a) C₃H₇ (b) C₃H₈ (c) C₂H₈
The % by mass of carbon in CO2 is A.37% B. 27% C. 48% D. 52%
What is the molar mass of Na₂SO₄? A. 172 B.168 C.142 D.133
An oxide of nitrogen contains 69.6% of oxygen by mass. Its empirical formula is A. N₂O₃ B. N₂O₂C. N₂O D. NO₂
All pure samples of chemical compound contain the same element in the same proportion by mass is a the law of____ A. definite proportion B. reciprocal proportion C. multiple proportion D. conservation of matter

SSS 1 Chemistry Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.A 2.B 3.C 4.A 5.A

6.C 7.A 8.B 9.B 10.D

11.A 12.B 13.A 14.A 15.B

16.A 17.A 18.C 19.B 20.A

21.B 22.B 23.A 24.C 25.A

26.B 27.B 28.C 29.D 30.A

THEORY

1a. Define relative atomic mass of an element

1b.State the relative atomic mass of the following elements: potassium, chlorine, silver, lead, phosphorus and nitrogen

1c. What is relative molecular mass of a compound?

1d. Calculate the relative molecular mass of (a) NaNO₃ (b) CuSO₄.5H₂O

2a. What is the mass of 2.7 mole of aluminium (Al=27)?

Solution:

Amount = Reacting mass/Molar mass

Reacting mass = Amount x Molar mass

= 2.7mole x 27 gmol^-1 = 72.9g.

2b. What is the number of oxygen atoms in 32g of the gas (O=16, N_A = 6.02 x 10²³)?

Solution:

Reacting mass/Molar mass = Number of atoms/6.02 x 10²³

Number of atoms = Reacting mass x 6.02 x 10²³/Molar mass

Molar mass of O₂= 16×2 =32gmol^-1

Number of atoms = 32g x 6.02 x 10²³/ 32gmol^-1

= 6.02 x 10²³

The number of oxygen atoms is 6.02 x 10²³

2c. Define the molar volume of a gas

2d. How many molecules are contained in 1.12dm³ of hydrogen gas at s.t.p?

3a. What is the percentage by mass of nitrogen in NH₄NO₃ ( H=1, N=14, 0=16)?

Solution:

Molar mass of NH₄NO₃ = 14×2 + 1×4 + 16×3 = 80gmol^-1

Percentage by mass of N₂ = Mass of N₂ x 100/Molar mass of NH₄NO₃ 1

= 28/80 x 100/1= 35%

3b. Calculate the percentage by mass of water of crystallization in MgSO₄.7H₂O

(Mg=24, S=32, 0=16, H=1)

Solution:

Molar mass of MgSO₄.7H₂0 = 24 + 32 + 16×4 + 9(2+16) = 246gmol^-1

7 moles of water of crystallization = 126g

Percentage by mass of water = Mass of H₂O /Molar mass of MgSO₄.7H₂O x 100/1

= 126g/246gmol^-1 x 100/1

= 51.2%

3c. Write a balanced equation for the combustion of ammonia gas in air.

Solution:

Step I: Write the reactants and predict the products

NH_3(g) + O_2(g) → NO_(g) + H₂O_(g)

Step II: The equation is not balanced. Therefore the equation can be balanced by placing the right coefficient in front of each molecule to balance the number of atoms. Thus, the balanced equation is:

4NH_3(g) + 5O_2(g) → 4NO_(g) + 6H₂O_(g)

3d. Write a balanced equation for the combustion of ethane in oxygen.

Solution:

The general formula for the combustion of Alkanes is

C_xH_y + (x + y/4) O₂ → XCO₂ + y/2 H₂O

The molecular formula for ethane is C₂H₆, so, x=2 and y=6

Substituting x and y into the formula above gives

C₂H₆ + (2 + 6/4) O₂ →2CO₂ + 6/2 H₂O

C₂H₆ + 7/2 O₂ →2CO₂ + 3H₂O

The equation is balanced. However, equations are written with whole number coefficients. By multiplying the entire equation by 2, we get

2C₂H₆ + 7O₂ →4CO₂ + 6H₂O

4a Define Chemical reactions and state 3 importance of chemical equations

4b. Outline three differences between physical and chemical changes.

5a. Calculate the number of moles of CaCl₂ that can be obtained from 25g of limestone [CaCO₃] in the presence of excess acid.

Solution:

The equation for the reaction is:

CaCO_3(s)+ 2HCl → CaCl_2(s) + H₂0_(l) + CO_2(g)

Number of moles = Reacting mass/Molar mass

Molar mass of CaCO₃ = 40 + 12 + 16×3 = 100gmol^-1

Number of moles of CaCO₃ = 25g/100gmol^-1 = 0.25 mole

From the equation of reaction,

1 mole CaCO₃ yields 1 mole CaCl₂

Therefore, 0.25 mole CaCO₃ yielded 0.25 mole CaCl_2.

5b. What does the term ‘Stoichiometry of reaction’ mean?

ANSWER

A stoichiometric chemical reaction is one where the quantities of the reactants and products are such that all of the reactants are consumed and none remain after completion of the chemical reaction

5c. In an experiment, 10cm³ of ethene [C₂H₄] was burnt in 50cm³ of oxygen.

A. Which gas was supplied in excess? Calculate the volume of the excess gas remaining at the end of the reaction.

B. Calculate the volume of CO₂gas produced.

Solution:

The equation for the reaction is:

C₂H_4(g)+ 3O_2(g) → 2CO_2(g) + 2H₂O_(g)

From the equation,

A.1 mole of ethene reacts with 3mole of oxygen

1 volume of ethene reacts with 3 volumes of oxygen

10cm³of ethene will react with 30cm³ of oxygen

Since 50cm³ of oxygen was supplied, oxygen was in excess

Hence volume of the excess gas = initial volume – volume used up = 50-30 = 20cm³

B.1 volume of ethene produces 2 volumes of CO₂

10 cm³ of ethene will produce 20cm³ of CO₂

Therefore, 20cm³ of CO₂ was produced

6a. Write the symbols of the following elements: mercury, silver, gold, lead, tin, antimony.

6b. Define the term valency

6c. Define the term radical.

6D.Write the formula of the following compounds

A. Mercury (i) dioxonitrate (iii)

B. Sodium hydrogen trioxocarbonate (IV)

C. Oxochlorate (I) acid

6E. State the law of (a) definite proportion (b) multiple proportion.

SS1 Civic Education Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR SECONDARY SCHOOL ( S.S.1)

CIVIC – EDUCATION

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A:

Instruction: Answer all question

The term “Pillars of Democracy” means _______ (a) the structure of democracy (b) the institutions and the personalities that contribute significantly to the development of democracy in a country (c) the presidency (d) the national assembly
Another name for the legislature is ________ (a) parliamentary (b) the national assembly (c) the bar (d) house of assembly
The press is usually regarded as ________ (a) the first estate of the realm (c) the fourth estate of the realm (c) the publishers (d) the third realm
Armed forces comprises of the following except _______ (a) the army (b) the road safety (c) the navy (d) air force
The political party which has dominated Nigerian politics since 1999 is ________ (a) ACN (b) PDP (c) APGA (d) APC
The UDIR is ___________ (a) easy to enforce (b) binding on members countries of the UN (c) a municipal law (d) difficult to every body
The bicameral legislature is usually adopted in _______country (a) small (b) large (c) minor (d) homogenous
The most important right among the seven core freedom of the UDHR is ______ (a) right to freedom (b) right to life (c) right to freedom from enslavement (d) right to freedom of religion
The following institution are involved in the protection of human rights except _____ (a) NHRC (b) legal aid cumuli (c) giant liberties organization (d) constitutional right projects
The legal documents for human rights came to being in ______ year (a) 1944 (b) 1948 (c) 1947 (d) 1984
One of the following English writer was credited with being the first to develop the concept of right. Who was that? (a) Elton Mayor (b) Thomas Hobbes (c) Adolf Hitler (d) Eleanor Roosevelt
Which of the following is not a cult group in Nigerian’s educational institutions (a) association of the sea dogs (b) Egbesu boys (c) blaua axe (d) buccaneers
The oldest cult group in Nigerian universities is _______ (a) Ijaya (b) pyrates (c) Ogboni confraternity (d) black axe
The primary cause of cultism in Nigeria is ______ (a) moral decadence (b) poor leadership (c) poverty (d) desire to be like others
The following are the examples of orderliness except ________ (a) anarchy (b) quenching (c) good conduct (d) driving skills
Orderliness is another word for ______ (a) discipline (b) patience (c) chaos (d) anarchy
The characteristics of orderliness includes the following except ________ (a) indolence (b) cleanliness (c) planning (d) co –operation
The arms of government that is responsible for law making is known as _______ (a) legislature (b) executive (c) the judiciary (d) the free press
The word “Change” as gagged by the incumbent administration in Nigeria is a symbol of _______ (a) economic and political anthropology (b) political instability (c) political party must be changed (d) Nigerians must change from following PDP
Which of the following is not a basic rights of an individuals in Nigeria_______ (a) freedom of expression (b) freedom of worship (c) freedom to dance (d) freedom of movement
The form of government where people run the government or exercise political power through their elected representative is known as ______ (a) representative democracy (b) value democracy (c) rule of law (d) constitutional democracy
Which of the following is not a principle of the rule of law _______ (a) equality before the law (b) supremacy of the law (c) principle of partiality (d) principle of corruption
Which of the following is not a factor necessary for the operation of the rule of law? (a) independence of the judiciary (b) freedom of the press (c) presence of unicameral legislature (d) the law must not be kept secret
An _____ person will always speak the truth irrespective of what comes his/her way (a) courageous (b) fearless (c) honest (d) lovely
Which of the following is not a feature of constitutional democracy? (a) popular sovereignty (b) one party system (c) majority rule (d) basic freedom
The process by which information is exchanged between individual is known as ______ (a) communication skills (b) manipulative skills (c) life coping (d) integrity
The body of law that relates to crime is known as ________ (a) criminal law (b) political law (c) crimatic law (d) court law
Every citizens of Nigeria is entitled to move freely throughout Nigeria and reside in any part thereof with the help of _______ (a) right to freedom of expression (b) right to peaceful assembly and association (c) right to freedom of movement (d) right to personal liberty
The law of the nation or state that deals with the rights of a citizens is known as _____ (a) civic law (b) public law (c) state law (d) people law
________ is the sense of attachment and consciousness of identity as well as the readiness to give all it takes to serve the nation (a) capitalism (b) democracy (c) nationalism (d) statism
_______ role could be extended to consciousness to serve humanity across national boundaries (a) democratic (b) capitalist (c) nationalism (d) government
______ is the first Nigerian political party (a) NNDP (b) NCNC (c) SDP (d) AD
The term democracy hails from the greek word Demo and ______ (a) kratos (b) kratia (c) kratus (d) kracy
The term “Demo” means ________ (a) people (b) government (c) rule (d) truth
The term “kratia” means _________ (a) truth (b) government (c) rule (d) people
There are ______ forms of democracy? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 5
________ democracy is a system of government in which all citizens meet together periodically for the purpose of governing the people (a) indirect (b) direct (c) mobilized (d) abstract
________ is a system where citizens choose their representatives to rule on their behalf? (a) mobilized democracy (b) abstract democracy (c) indirect democracy (d) direct democracy
The principle of the rule of law propounded by? (a) Abraham Lincoln (b) A.V Dicey (c) GaniFawehinmi (d) Blanchard
________ is the supremacy of law over every citizen on political system? (a) the rule of law (b) principle of impartiality (c) right to appeal (d) freedom of the press

SSS 1 Civic Education Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1. B 2.B 3.A 4.B 5.B 6.B 7.A 8.B 9.A 10.B

11.D 12.D 13.C 14.A 15.B 16.A 17.A

18.A 19.C 20.B 21.A 22.D 23.C 24.A 25.B

26.A 27.A 28.C 29.A 30.C 31.C 32.A 33.B

34.A 35.C 36.A 37.B 38.C 39.B 40.A

SECTION B THEORY PART

ANSWER THREE (3) QUESTIONS ONLY

Define Democracy? B. What are the major features of democracy?

c. Explain the concept of representative’s democracy

Define Rule of Law B. What are the principles of rule of law?

c. Explain how rule of law guarantees personal liberty

What is a Constitution? B. What are the functions of a constitution?
Define Federalism. B. What are the problems of federalism in Nigeria?
What is Liberty?

b. Mention types of liberty and explain?

SS1 Commerce Examination Questions For Second Term

S.S.S ONE ( SENIOR CLASS 1)

COMMERCE

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A:

Instruction: Answer all questions

___ trade involves buying in small quantities from the wholesaler or the manufacturer and selling in units to the final consumers (a) retail (b) foreign (c) home
Which of the following is not function of the retailer? (a) to the manufacturer (b) to the company (c) to the consumer
All of the following are examples of small scale retailing except__(a) hawkers (b) peddlers (c) supermarket
____ is an important avenue for the sale of fake or sub-standard goods (a) shops (b) hawking (c) marketing
____ traders is that they move from place to place to sell, thereby making goods handy for customers (a) itinerant (b) road siders (c) bikers
___ scale retail businesses consisting of many similar shops or branches spread or located in different towns/ cities all over a country (a) large (b) small (c) market
Which of these is not an examples of large scale retailing (a) supermarket (b) mobile shops (c) hypermarkets
___ allows customers to do their shopping in a shop with little or no assistance from sales attendants (a) self-service (b) hawking (c) branding
Which of these is not a factor to determine the level of after-sales ? (a) cost of goods (b) practice of competitors (c) illegal requirements
_____ involved the sale of goods to customers through coin-operated (or card-operated) machined (a) vending machines (b) self-service (c) chain store
___ involves the buying of goods in large quantities from the producers or manufacturing and re-selling in small quantities to the retailer (a) retailing (b) wholesaling (c) manufacturing
A ___is a trader who purchases goods in large quantities from the manufacturing and sells in small quantities (a) retailer (b) wholesaler (c) buyer and seller
Which of these is not function of wholesaler to manufacturer? (a) prepare commodities for sale (b) advertise goods (c) quantity of low buying
___ is the person that bridges the gulf/gap between the manufacturer and the consumer (a) manufacturer (b) middlemen (c) hawkers
____ trade is the exchange of goods and services between two or more countries (a) local (b) buying (c) import (d) foreign
Another name for foreign trade is ___(a) external (b) internal (c) local (d) trading
____ refers to goods bought from other countries (a) import (b) export (c) entreport
___ refers to goods sold to other countries (a) import (b) export (c) entreport
____ refer to buying from one country to resell to another (a) import (b) export (c) entreport
_____ trade is a trade agreement in which two countries exchange goods and services as trading partners (a) multilateral (b) bilateral (c) visible (d) invisible
____ trade refers to a situation where a country has more than one trading partner at the same time (a) multilateral (b) bilateral (c) visible (d) invisible
___ trade refers to the trade-in items of tangible goods – goods that can be seen, touched and felt. (a) multilateral (b) bilateral (c) visible (d) invisible
____ trade refers to the trade-in items that cannot be seen, felt or touched. They are usually services. (a) multilateral (b) bilateral (c) visible (d) invisible
____ is the re-exporting of goods that has been imported from other countries (a) import (b) export (c) entreport
___ is the relationship between the prices of a country’s exports and prices of her imports (a) terms of trade (b) balance of trade (c) favourable terms of trade
___ is an annual statement of all payments made to other countries and total receipts from those countries (a) balance of trade (b) balance of payment (c) sales
___ is a permit that allows goods to be imported. It is used to limit the persons who can import certain goods and the quantities those people can import (a) tariffs (b) embargo (c) import license
____ is the prohibition or outright ban placed on some imported goods. (a) tariffs (b) embargo (c) import license
The balance of payment is made up of three main accounts (a) true (b) false (c) maybe
___ is a bill of lading signed without any qualification clause i.e. without any words to the effect that the goods are damaged (a) clean bill (b) dirty bill (c) foul bill

THEORY

1a. State two uses of indent in international trade

1b. State any five channels of distribution for consumer goods

1c. List five information contained in a bill of lading

2a.Define Balance of payment and list its types

2b. 2 Types of International trade and 3 benefits

2c. 3 differences between home and foreign trade

3a. Define foreign trade and 3 merits and demerits

3b. Explain wholesaling and state features of a wholesaler

4a. List 5 types of large scale retailing and explain 2

4b. What is self-service? State 3 features

SSS 1 Commerce Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.A 2.B 3.C 4.B 5.A

6.A 7.B 8.A 9.C 10.A

11.B 12.B 13.C 14.B 15.D

16.A 17.A 18.B 19.C 20.B

21.A 22.C 23.D 24.C 25.A

26.B 27.C 28.B 29.A 30.A

SS1 CRS Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

Which one of the following is NOT the fruit of the spirit? (a) Love (b) spirit (c) joy (d) gentleness
The significance of faith in God is______(a) trust (b) boldness (c) reward (d) protection
_____ is a friend of God and father of faith (a) Moses (b) David (c) Abraham (d) Elijah
_____means trust or belief (a) trust (b) faith (c) Gospel (d) God
Which one of the Apostles teachers about faith and religion? (a) Paul (b) James (c) Jonah (d) Job
Christians can demonstrate their faith by_______(a) helping the unemployed (b) participate in church activities (c) sending out unbelievers (d) discriminating
Who teachers about how to control or bridle out tongues for our perfection? (a) James (b) Paul (c) Peter (d) Judas
Mankind are justified by_____(a) faith in God (b) Blood of Jesus Christ (c) humility (d) patience
Whosoever that believe in Jesus Christ is not condemned but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God is written in____(a) John 3:16 (b) John 3: 17 (c) John 3:18 (d) John 3:19
Mankind is redeemed back to God by the____ (a) blood of Jesus (b) death of Jesus (c) name of Jesus (d) Word
____is the gospel message of deliverance of people from different bondages (a) gospel (b) salvation (c) deliverance (d) healing
A woman who is suffering from lack of children is bondage of ____(a) marital status (b) fruit of the womb (c) marriage (d) relationship
God hates most one of these bondages (a) idol (b) poverty (c) marital status (d) sickness
One of the most important fruit of the spirit is ____(a) peace (b) love (c) joy (d) goodness
Spiritual gift is the gift of _____(a) God (b) Holy spirit (c) Jesus (d) Angels
It is the Holy spirit that dwells in a man to make him acknowledge Jesus as His _____(a) master (b) savior (c) Lord (d) Shepherd
There are ______ gifts of the Holy spirit listed by Paul (a) nine (b) ten (c) eleven (d) twelve
The raising of the dead is an example of ____ (a) healing (b) miracle (c) wisdom (d) knowledge
The speaking in tongues and interpretation of tongues is _____(a) prophet (b) prophecy (c) message (d) faith
The chasing out of demons from Mary Magdalene by Jesus is an example of _____ (a) healing (b) miracle (c) deliverance (d) prophecy
The gifts to work in the office of one’s calling of Jesus are ___ in numbers (a) 4 (b)5 (c) 6 (d) 3
The Holy spirit gift is given to the churches to_____ (a) glorify God (b) praise God (c) worship God (d) trust God
___ means the act of pardoning someone or offenders (a) courage (b) punishment (c) forgiveness
____is the person who go against the written rules (a) offend (b) offender (c) offence
____is the grace of God to all mankind through the blood of Jesus Christ (a) Salvation (b) forgiveness (c) love
The reward for forgiveness is____(a) war (b) peace (c) enmity
The effect of un-forgiveness is _____(a) joy (b) bitterness (c) peace
Family unit is the ______ unit of the large society (a) biggest (b) smallest (c) largest
In which Epistle did Paul outlined the duties and responsibilities of every member of the family (a) Philemon (b) James (c) Colossians
Society can only be produced by_____ family (a) healthy (b) nuclear (c) unhealthy

SSS 1 CRS Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.B 2.B 3.C 4.B 5.B

6.B 7.A 8.A 9.C 10.A

11.B 12.B 13.A 14.B 15.B

16.C 17.A 18.B 19.B 20.C

21.B 22.A 23.C 24.B 25.B

26.B 27.B 28.B 29.C 30.A

SECTION B- THEORY

– Answer 3 out of 5

1A. Define Salvation

1B. List 4 examples of Bondages

2A. Define Forgiveness

2B. List 2 effects of un-forgiveness

3A. Define Faith

3B. List three people that demonstrated faith in the Bible and narrate the story

4A. List 5 fruit of the spirit

4B. List 2 ways Christians can demonstrate their faith

5A. Write the full meaning of APPET e.g. Apostles

5B. List 5 spiritual gifts of the Holy spirit

5C. Who is a good citizen?

SS1 Data Processing Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

DATA PROCESSING

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

The unprocessed fact is called ……. A. Data B. Processing C. Information D. All of the above
There are ……… types of data. A. 3 B. 6 C. 2 D. 8
One of these is not an example of data. A. Words B. Numbers C. Weather report. D. Observations
We have ………. ways of handling data. A. 3 B. 5 C. 2 D. 4
Sources of information are these except. A. Internet B. Database C. Census board D. Textbooks
___ is the acquisition, recording, organization, retrieval, display and dissemination of information. A. Data processing B. Information processing C. Operating system D. DBMS
There are ……… kinds of procedure for information processing. A. 4 B. 5 C. 3 D. 2
One of these is NOT a way of organizing information. A. Time B. Location C. Distance D. Alphabet
____ is a process of inspecting and modeling data. A. Collation B. Analysis C. Interpretation of information D. All of the above
____is the manipulation of digitized information by computers and other digital electronic equipments. A. Data processing B. Information processing C. Organization of information. D. Collation of information
There are ………. types of information transmission medium. A. 5 B. 3 C. 4 D. 2
____ type of information transmission medium is known as space communication. A. Wireless B. Cable C. Satellite D. None of the above
____is an audio – visual transmission medium. A. Radio B. Television C. Telegraph D. Internet
There are____classification of information transmission. A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 7
One of these is an example of non-electronic information transmission medium. A. Television B. Animal signs C. Internet D. Satellite
_____is used to transmit audio messages A. Radio B. Newspaper C. Television D. Typewriter
___ is used to transmit both audio and visual messages to the audience. A. Radio B. Newspaper C. Television D. Typewriter
Radio uses____to transmit its content. A. Air B. Electromagnetic wave C. Magnetism D. Hydro
Radio was invented by ____A. Blaize Pascal B. Guglielmo Marconi C. Joseph Jacquard D. John Logie
One of the inventors of Television is_A. Famsworth B. G. Marconi C. Blaize Pascal D. None of the above
The type of communication satellite uses is called___A. Satellite communication B. Space communication C. Wireless communication D. Cable communication
There is need for ____in satellite communication so as to allow the receiver to receives signal. A. Battery B. Antenna C. Cable D. Printer
The following are devices used for wireless communication except. __A. Phone B. Satellite TV C. Typewriter D. Wireless computer parts
Example of the kind of information that can pass through a fiber – optic cable is___A. Processed information B. Telephone calls C. Dissemination D. None of the above
__ refers to the set of moral principles that regulate the use of computer. A. Safety measure B. Computer Ethics C. Computer Software D. Computer Hardware
Duplicating copyrighted electronic content is__ A. Ethical B. Unethical C. Moral D. All of the above
One of these is a computer room management ethic. A. Ventilation B. Operating system C. Formatting D. Editing
___is a place where students learn practical uses of a computer. A. Biology lab B. Chemistry lab C. Computer lab D. Computer village
Safety measures are needed to protect computer against __A. Professionalism B. Expertise C. Hazard D. All of the above
Our computers need to be protected against ____A. Antivirus B. Virus C. Computer Efficiency D. All of the above

SSS 1 Data Processing Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.A 2.C 3.D 4.C 5.D

6.B 7.A 8.C 9.B 10.D

11.D 12.C 13.B 14.D 15.B

16.A 17.C 18.B 19.B 20.A

21.B 22.B 23.C 24.B 25.B

26.B 27.A 28.C 29.C 30.B

THEORY

– ANSWER 3 only

1a. Define information

1b. Differentiate in tabular form, between data and information

1c. Give four examples of data.

1d. State any five sources of information

2a. State the difference between collation and classification of information.

2b. Give any three kinds of information that may be gotten from external.

2c. List two advantages and disadvantages of information processing.

2d. What is the meaning of information processing?

3a. Differentiate between Electronic and Non – electronic means.

3b. State the advantages of wireless communication.

3c. List its disadvantages.

3d. Explain any four types of non – electronic information transmission.

4a. How can Radio and Television be used as media of information transmission?

4b. Differentiate between Radio and Television.

4c. What is ethics?

4d. Define computer ethics

5a. What are computer safety measures?

5b.Why safety measures for computers

5c.Mention five ways to protect computer users.

5d. List and explain four safety rules in the computer laboratory.

SS1 Economics Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

_______ is the factor of production which is usually bought and sold in the market (a) Capital (b) Labour (c) Entrepreneur
______ is a place where a firm carries out its productive activities (a) Plant (b) Industry (c) Company (d) Factorie
For running the routine part of the business, _______ are appointed (a) Labourers (b) Capital (c) Managers (d) Workers
Economics of large scale production is also popularly known as _______ (a) Internal economies (b) External economics (c) diseconomies (d) all of the above
Division of labour is one of the aspect of ______ (a) labour (b) specialization (c) development (d) employment
Demand for _______ is the total number of workers employers are willing to employ at a particular time (a) Capital (b) Workers (c) Labour (d) All of the above
The following are the classification of internal economics of large scale production except one (a) Technical economics (b) Welfare economics (c) Production economics (d) financial economics
Under what specialization to producer concentrates on the production of a particular commodity (a) geographical (b) (b) product (c) sex (d) process
The type of capital which is provided by the government is called…………. A. fixed capital B. social capital C. variable capital D. circulating capital
_______ bears the risks and take major decision of a business (a) the company (b) Government (c) entrepreneur (d) management
________ is concerned with the extraction of mineral resources from the soil by special devices (a) Mining industry (b) Processing industry (c) energy industry (d) construction industry
The following are limitations to the scale of production except _______ (a) availability of capital (b) risk bearing (c) extent of the market (d) nature of the business
_______ is the total number of people of working age in a country who are able and willing by law to work (a) demand for labour (b) Labour wages (c) Labour force (d) Working census
The following are advantages of public limited liability company except ______ (a) legal entity (b) large capital (c) loan facilities (d) conflict of interest
Specialization is as a result of ________ (a) division of labour (b) capital (c) labour (d) industry
The factor of production which has absolute control and bears the risks of the business is……. A. entrepreneur B. land C. labour D. capital
Co – operative society is one of the oldest forms of a business organization (a) True (b) False
_______ is the total number of a people living within a country at a particular time (a) population (b) head count (c) census (d) citizens
The following are the types of partners except one (a) Sleeping partners (b) general partners (c) unlimited partners (d)active partners
In Africa, ________ is the most populous country with 177, 328 million people (a) Ghana (b) Nigeria (c) South Africa (d) Cameroon
One of the following is not a factor that determine the size of a firm (a) nature of business (b) managerial ability (b) availability of labour (d) construction
These are industries which can convert raw material into a finished goods by the use of a machines (a) mining industry (b) construction (c) manufacturing (d) processing
There are ______ types of economics of scale (a) 4 (b 2(c) 6 (d) 3
The following are the types of specialization and division of labour except _______ (a) by process (b) by gender (c) by product (d) by sex
________ is a man made assets used in the production (a) labour (b) capital (c) producers (d) workers
The following are the characteristics of an entrepreneur except one (a) organization (b) decision making (c) controls other factors (d) none of the above
These are capital required for the day to day running of the productive activities (a) social capital (b) current capital (c) fixed capital (d) working capital
One of the following is not an advantages of specialization (a) less fatigue (b) lower unit cost (c) time saving (d) repetition
The people involved in partnership agreement are called _______ (a) owners (b) legal entity (c) partners (d) None of the above
Sole proprietorship is not an unincorporated business (a) True (b) False
_______ is the individual portion of the company’s capital (a) stock (b) debentures (c) shares (d) all of the above
The following are the disadvantages of a co – operative society except one (a) lack of decision (b) evasion of tax (c) limited expansion (d) lack of privacy
______ is the most populous continent in the world (a) Asia (b) India (c) Africa (d) European
He / she has full power of participating in the conduct and management of the partnership of the partnership business (a) active partner (b) dormant partners (c) general partners (d) all of the above
The following are the factors affecting the demand for labour except one (a) wage rate (b) size of market (c) efficiency of labour (d) retirement age
The following are the factors affecting death rate except one (a) poverty (b) unemployment (c) natural disasters (d) poor medical services
Co – operative society was established in Nigeria by a group of ______ farmers (a) cocoa (b) yam (c) rice (d) maize
Firm may be small or _____ (a) great (b) large (c) huge (d) high
One of the following is not a basic concepts of economics (a) scarcity (b) want (c) budget (d) choice
These are assets which are used up in the course of production (a) fixed capital (b) working capital (c) liquid capital (d) social capital
______ is the head count of all the people living in a country at a particular point in time (a) population (b) population growth (c) population census (d) population size
_______ includes a collection of different firms which produces similar goods under separation under separates management (a) plant (b) production (c) industry
One of the following is not a characteristic of a partnership (a) objective (b) loan (c) liability (d) management
_______ determines the stages into which production process will be divided (a) availability of labour (b) availability of capital (c) level of technology (d) government policy
When there is high demand for certain products of a firm, it motivates the firm to produce less (a) True (b) False
The following are sources of capital for sole proprietorship except one (a) Loan (b) personal saving (c) trade credit (d) debtors
_________ company have a minimum of seven persons but no maximum number is prescribed (a) partnership (b)private limited (c) public limited liability (d) co – operative society
__________ is the bundle of shares or mass of capital which can be transferred infractional amount (a) capital (b) stock (c) debentures (d)shares
The following are determinants of population size and growth except one (a) war (b) birth rate (c) migration (d) death rate
___is the goods that is not wanted directly for its own sake. But for the production of further goods. A. exchange B. capital C. choice D. land
Labour is said to be __________ when workers find it easy to move from one geographical area to another or to change jobs (a) mobile (b) easy (c) expensive (d) growing
The name of the ________ company must end with the abbreviation “LIMITED” (a) sole proprietorship (b) public co – operation (c) partnership (d) private
_________ is an entity which specializes in the production and distribution of goods under one administration (a) manufacturing (b) firm (c) industry (d) production
There are _________ types of co – operative society (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 6 (d) 4
All but one is not a problem associated with population census (a) illiteracy (b) high cost (c) investment (d) religious belief
_________ is a form of business enterprise owned, financed and manage by one person with the aim of maximizing profit (a) sole proprietorship (b) public co – operation (c) partnership (d) co – operative society
One of the following is a characteristics of private limited liability companies (a) specific line of business (b) preparation of annual account (c) perpetual existence (d) management
________ market is where buyers and sellers of labour are in close contact (a) product (b) labour (c) capital (d) sales
The formation of ________ is by two or more persons, no maximum number of persons (a) public co – operation (b) sole proprietorship (c) co – operative society (d) partnership
_________ when properly combined with other factors of produced goods and services (a) Labour (b) capital (c) specialization (d) firm

SSS 1 Economics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.B 2.D 3.A 4.B 5.A 6.C 7.D 8.B 9.C

10.B 11.A 12.B 13.C 14.D 15.A 16.A 17.B

18.A 19.C 20.B 21.D 22.C 23.B 24.C 25.B

26.D 27.D 28.D 29.C 30.B 31.C 32.B 33.A

34.A 35.D 36.B 37.C 38.B 39.C 40.A 41.C

42.C 43.B 44.A 45.B 46.D 47.C 48.B 49.A

50.B 51.A 52.D 53.B 54.A 55.C 56.A 57.A 58.B 59.D 60.A

SECTION B (THEORY PART)

ANSWER THREE (3) QUESTIONS ONLY

A. Differentiate between Division of Labour and Specialization

b. State the types of Specialization and Division of Labour

A. What is Business Organization

b. State the types of Business Organization

A. Define Population

b. State and explain the determinants of population size and growth

4.A Explain Joint stock companies

4b. Explain Scale of production Concept of TP, MP, VP

SS1 English Language Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

ENGLISH STUDIES

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

___ is the rise and fall of the voice in speaking (A) pitch (b) intonation (c) statement
______ sounds is the combination of two vowels (a) triphthongs (b) diphthong (c) monothong
____is the combination of three vowel sounds (a) thriphthong (b) duathong (c) monothong
The ____ intonation is that tone that rises from a low pitch slowly unti its gets to the highest level (a) falling (b) rising (C) pitching
The _____intonation is the one that the pitch its falls (a)rising (b) falling (c) middle
____is an example of falling tone (a) He has won the visa lottery (b) He, really (c) Is that so?
_____ are words added to the beginning of another word (a) suffixes (b) prefixes (c) prefixed
_____ are words added to the end of a word to changes its meaning (a) prefixes (b) suffixes (c) suffixed
_____ shows the relationship between a noun or a pronoun and other words in a sentence (a) adverb (b) adjective (c) preposition
When two or more consonant come together without a vowel in between is known as ___(a) consonant cluster (b) vowel cluster (c) syllables

SECTION B: SPEECH WORK

11. ___is the correct transcribing of student (a) /student (b) stjudӘnt/ (c) stjuænt/

12. /Skʌlpts/ means ____ (a) shrink (b) sculpts (c) scope

13. /Dʒʌmps/ means _____ (a) join (b) jeep (c) jump

14. Join is transcribe as _____(a) /dʒɔin/ (b) /dʒoin/ (c) /dʒɔ:in/

15.New is transcribe as ____(a) /neu/ (b) /nju:/ (c) /niw/

Chose or out the First Stress Syllables e.g. Picture – PIC

16. Progress = (a) PRogress (b) PROGress (c) PROgress

17. Custom __= (a) custom (b) CUStom (c) CUSTom

18. Speaker__= (a) SPEaker (b) SPEAker (c) SpeaKER

19. Pillow _= (a) PIllow (b) PILLow (c) PILlow

20. Manner __= (a) Manner (b) MANner (c) MANNER

SECTION C: VOCABULARY WORDS

21. A person who believes that there is no God is called____(a) Ethics (b) Atheist (c) Clergy

22. What is taught as the belief of, example, a religious, political or scientific body of persons is called___(a) ethics (b) doctrine (c) gospel

23. A group of people ordained for Christian religious service is called ____(a) pastors (b) clergy (c) members

24. ___means writing or drawing with light. (a) photography (b) camera man (c) studio

25. Workroom of a photography is called ____ (a) film (b) studio (c) art room

26. ____ is the movement of humans, animals and goods from one place to the other (a) transportation (b) communication (C) advertisement

27. Which one of the following is not a means of transportation? (a) horses (b) monitor (c) helicopter

28. Curved piece of glass that forms images as light passes through it is called____(a) Lens (b) Blur (c) Film

29. The expensive transportation is by___(a) water (b) land (c) air

30. To take a fixed position for the sake of effect is called _____(a) Blur (b) Film (c) Pose

SECTION D: Choose 2 out of these four sections

(1) VOCABULARY- Write 10 words associated with transportation and religion

LEXIS AND STRUCTURE: Compulsory (Preposition)

31. A dog was__ the table (a) above (b) under (c) beneath

32. The boy is playing___ the roadside (a) by (b) behind (c) off

33. The housemaid is _ the room upstairs (a) among (b) in (b) at

34. Is Binta_____the prefects? (a) by (b) among (c) behind

35. The woman live towards the house. What type of phrase is underlined? (a) adverbial (b) prepositional (c) adjectival

Example.-She (speaks) English, She is speaking English

36. My parents____ religious songs (sings) (a) are singing (b) is singing (c) we sing

37. I ____ rice now (eat) (a) we eat (b) am eating (c) eating

38. You ____ with the children (play) (a) are played (b) is playing (c) are playing

39. They ____ the thief (beat) (a) is beating (b) are beaten (c) are beating

40. My mother ___ in Lagos ( works) (a) are working (b) is working (c) will working

SUMMARY: Summarize in 3 sentences the effects of the New Naira Notes in Nigeria

COMPOSITION:- Write a letter to the Chairman of your local government area requesting for some amenities needed in your community

SSS 1 English Studies Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.B 2.B 3.A 4.B 5.B 6.A 7.B 8.B 9.C

10.A 11.B 12.B 13.C 14.A 15.B 16.C 17.B

18.B 19.C 20.B 21.B 22.B 23.B 24.A 25.B

26.A 27.B 28.A 29.C 30.C 31.B 32.A 33.B

34.A 35.B 36.A 37.B 38.C 39.C 40.B

SS1 Financial Account Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

FINANCIAL – ACCOUNTING

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

Which of the following subsidiary books involves cash movement A. Sales Day Book B. Purchases Day Book C. Returns Inwards Book D. Petty Cash Book
Which of the following books of original entry also serves as a ledger A. Purchases Day Book B. Cash Book C. The Journal D. Sales Day Book
The lodgement of business cash into the business bank account is an example of__ A. bank reconciliation B. self-balancing ledger C. contra entry D. reversal entry
Nwoye buys goods and pays by cheque. The entries in the books of Nwoye is debit A. Purchases; Credit Cheque B. Purchases; Credit Bank C. Bank; Credit Purchases D. Cheques; Credit Purchases
A debit entry in the Cash Account and a corresponding credit entry in Aliu’s Account indicate a A. sales of goods to Aliu for cash B. purchase of goods from Aliu for cash C. receipt of cash from Aliu D. payment of cash to Aliu
In which of the following books will trade discount be recorded __A. Cash book B. General Ledger C. Invoices D. Purchases Day Book
When discount is allowed the accounting entry is debit discount allowed account and credit A. Expenses Account B. Suspense account C. Debtors Account D. Creditors account
The process of entering transaction from one book to another is A. folio B. casting C. posting D. numbering
The discount column of a three column cash book is not balanced off but periodically transferred ____ A. are not important in cash book (b) are cash items only (c) do not form part of a double entry (d) are used for bank reconciliation
When both debit and credit entries in respect of a transaction are made in the same ledger account this is A. a ledger entry B. an accounting entry C. a folio entry D. a contra entry
Which of the following demonstrates the imprest system A. float expenses paid cash at bank float B. float cash from bank expenses paid float C. float expenses paid cash from bank float D. float cash in bank expenses paid float
A cash book had opening balance of N15, 200, closing balance N18, 400 and total cash received during the period N36, 000. What was the amount of cash paid out during the same period A. N17, 800 B. N19, 600 C. N29, 200 D. N32, 800
In a petty cash book, the closing balance was N235, imprestN1, 250, while stationery expenses were N655. How much was paid for other general expenses (A)N360 B. N355 C. N350 D. N305
An analytical cash book is used to A. indicate sources of cash received B. categorise petty cash payment C. separate cash and bank balance D. analyse amount due from debtors
The maximum level of cash held by a cashier under an imprest system is a/an A. vote B. float C. reimbursement D. advance
A book that contains the accounts for the financial transactions of an organisation is the (A) journal B. ledger C. folio D. register
The two fundamental books of accounts are Cash Book and Petty Cash Book B. Receipt and Invoice C. Journal and Ledger D. Notes and Coins
Which of the following is the principal book of account? General Journal B. Sales book C. Purchases book D. Ledger
Which of the following is not contained in the Ledger? (A) date of transaction B. description of the transaction C. folio number of transaction D. address of the customer
The process of entering transactions from one book to another is called ____ (A) reading B. posting C. numbering D. casting
The purchase of a typewriter for office use was debited to purchase account This is an error of ____(a) original entry (b) commission (c) principle (d) omission
Carriage inwards are incurred on goods on __(a) supplier B. sold C. purchased D. on return
Return inwards is also called (a) carriage inwards B. carriage outwards C. purchases returns D. sales returns
Which of the following accounts will have a credit balance? (a) capital (b) cash (c) drawings (d) premises
An account is said to have a debit balance because(a) the first entry made in it is on the debit side B. there are more entries on the debit side than on the credit side C. total value of debit entries is more than the total value of credit entries D. there is no entry at all on the debit side
When a transaction is completely left out from the books, it is an error of A. commission B. omission C. principle D. compensation
Which of the following errors will affect the totals of a trial balance A. compensating error B. complete reversal of entry C. error in addition D. error of original entry
A trial balance is prepared to A. detect fraud B. ascertain losses in a trading period C. determine opening capital D. test arithmetical accuracy of ledger entries
Where a wrong figure occurs in only one account with the second figure correctly stated, this is an error of A. transportation B. compensation C. omission D. commission
The payment of N6,000 for electricity was debited to entertainment account. This is an error of A. principle B. omission C. original entry D. commission

SSS 1 Accounting Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.D 2.B 3.C 4.B 5.C

6.D 7.C 8.C 9.C 10.D

11.C 12.D 13.A 14.C 15.B

16.B 17.C 18.D 19.D 20.B

21.C 22.A 23.D 24.A 25.C

26.B 27.C 28.D 29.A 30.A

SS1 Further Maths Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

FURTHER – MATHEMATICS

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

Given f(x) = 3x² + 2, find the values of (a) f (4) (b) f (-3) (c) f (-1/2) (A) 11/₄ (B) 11/₂ (C) 11/₃ (D) 11/₅
If every element in the domain have different image I the co-domain, such type of mapping is called___(a) constant mapping (b) onto mapping (c) one- to – one mapping
A mapping F is called____ if every element of the co-domain is an image of at least one element in the domain. (a) constant mapping (b) onto mapping (c) one- to – one mapping
Given f(y) = p^x and f (3) = 81, determine the value of x?____ A -4 B 27 C 4
The rule that assign an element to two or non-empty set is (a) logic (b) set (c) mapping
If f is a function defined by f(x) = 2x²– 3, find f(-3). A. -15 B 18 C. 15
This is the rule which assign an element x in set A to another unique element y in set B. The set A is called_____(a) the set (b) the domain (c) the co-domain
This is the rule which assign an element x in set A to another unique element y in set B. The set B is called__(a) the set (b) the domain (c) the co-domain
The____ is the unique element in set B produced by an element in set A. (a) range (b) image (c) domain
The___ is the collection of all the images of the elements of the domain. (a) range (b) image (c) domain
The functions f and g on the set of real numbers are defined by f(x) = 3x-1 and g(x) = 5x+2 respectively. Find F [g(x)] (a) 15x +5 (b) 14x +5 (c) 15x +8
The functions f and g on the set of real numbers are defined by f(x) = 3x-1 and g(x) = 5x+2 respectively. Find g [f(x)] (a) 15x +5 (b) 15x-3 (c) 15x +8
The functions f and g on the set of real numbers are defined by f(x) = 3x-1 and g(x) = 5x+2 respectively. Find 2f(x) – g(x) (a) x-5 (b) x-3 (c) x-4
A function f(x) is defined as f(x)=x2+3. Find f(0),f(1),f(x2),f(x+1) and f(f(1)) (a) 19 (b) 18 (c) 16
How many ways can 6 students be seated around a circular table? (a) 36 (b) 48 (c) 120 (d) 720
A___ is a pattern of numbers arranged in a particular order (a) Set (b) sequence (c) map
Each of the number in the sequence is called a____ (a) term (b) terminate (c) sequence (d) set
The sum of the terms in a sequence is regarded as____ (a) set (b) series (c) sequences
Write down the first four terms of the sequence whose general term is given by:(i) T_n = n+1/3n+2

The sequence is (a) ²/₅, ³/₈, ⁴/₁₁, ⁵/₁₄ (b) ⁴/₅, 5/₈, ⁴/₁₁, ⁵/₁₄ (c) ²/₅, ³/₈, ⁴/₁₁, ⁵/₁₇

20. What is the 10^th term of the sequence 10, 6, 2, -4? (a) T₁₀ = -26 (b) T₁₀ = -22 (c) T₁₀ = -28

21. Find the term of the A.P 3½, 7, 10½ ….. Which is 77? (a) 25 (b) 23 (c) 22

22. The First term of an A.P is 3 and the 8^th term is 31. Find the common difference (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3

23. Find the sum of the first 25 terms of the A.P 3, 10, 17. (a) 2175 (b) 2176 (b) 2126

24. The 8th term of the sequence 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8 ………… is__ (a) 25 (b) 24 (c) 23 (d) 21

25. Find the 9^th term of the sequence G.P 2, -10, 50 … (a) 781270 (b) 781250 (c) 781240

26. If 7, x, y, 189 are in G.P, find x and y. (a) 63 (b) 67 (c) 64 (d) 62

27. Insert two geometric mean between 12 and 324 (a) 36 and 180 (b) 37 and 120 (c) 36 and 125

28. The third term of a G.P is 63 and the fifth term is 567. Find the sum of the first six terms of the progression (a) 2457 (b) 2548 (c) 2534

29. Find the solution set of each of the following inequalities and represent them graphically 2x – 3 < x + 7 (a) X> 8 (b) x<5 (c) X < 10

30. A compound statement which is always False irrespective of the truth value of the sub statement is called__(a) contradiction (b) tautology (c) disjunction

SSS 1 Further Maths Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.A 2.C 3.B 4.C 5.C

6.C 7.B 8.C 9.B 10.A

11.A 12.B 13.C 14.A 15.C

16.B 17.A 18.B 19.A 20.A

21.C 22.B 23.A 24.D 25.B

26.A 27.A 28.B 29.C 30.A

THEORY

1a. Determine the domain D of the mapping, g:x→ 2x² – 1, if R= { 1,7,17} is the range and g is defined on D.

SOLUTION:

g(x) = 2x²– 1, R = {1,7,17}

To find the domain, when g(x) = 1,

1= 2x² -1

1+1 = 2x²

x² = 2/2

x=1

When g(x) = 7,

7 = 2x²-1

7+1 = 2x²

8 =2x²

x²= 4, x= 2

When g(x) = 17,

17 =x²-1

17+1 = 2x²

=x²

x² = 9, x= 3

Domain D ={1, 2,3}

1b. Given that h: x x² + 2x – 3 is a mapping defined on the set A = { -1, 0, 1, 2}. Find the range of h.

2. The mappings f and g are defined by the diagram below:

Determine

(a) f(-3) +f(4) (b) f(2) +g(-5) (c) g[f(-3)] (d) g[(-3)] +g[f(4)]

SOLUTION:

F(-3) + F(4) = -5 + 9 = 4
F(2) + F(-5) = 5 +(-10) = -5
G[f(-3)] = g(-5) = -10
G[f(-3)] + g[f(4)] = g(-5) + g(9) = -10 + 18 = 8

3a. Matrix determinant

matrix([5,3,7],[2,4,9],[3,6,4]) ANSWER= -133

3b. (i) Insert four arithmetic means between -5 and 10.

(ii) The 8^th term of a linear sequence is 18 and the 12^th term is 26. Find the first term, the common difference and the 20^th term.

Solution

(i) Let the sequence be -5, a, b, c, d, 10.

a = -5, T6 = 10, n =6.

T_n = a + (n-1) d

10 = -5 + (6 – 1) d

15 = 5d

d = ¹⁵/₅ = 3

a = -5 + 3 = -2

b = -2 + 3 = 1

c = 1 + 3 = 4

d = 4 + 3 = 7

The numbers will be -5, -2, 1, 4, 7, 10.

(ii) T₈ = a + 7d = 18, T₁₂ = a +11d = 26

a + 7d = 18 ……………….. (i)

a + 11d =26 ……………….. (ii)

Subtract (i) from (ii)

4d = 8

d = 2

Substitute for d = 2 in (i)

a + 7 (2) = 18

a = 18 – 14

a = 4

T₂₀ = a + (n – 1) d = a + 19d

T₂₀ = 4 + (20 – 1) 2

= 4 + 19 x 2

T₂₀ = 42

4a. Find the sum of first 6 terms of the G.P 18, 6, 2 …………

Solution

G.P = 18, 6, 2 …….

a = 18, r = ⁶/₁₈ = ¹/₃, n = 6, S₆?

S_n = a (1 – rⁿ)/1 – r

= 18(1- (¹/₃)⁶) / 1–¹/₃²/₃ = 18(1- ¹/₇₂₉)

S₆ = 18 x 3 x 728/2 x 729

S₆ = 26.9

SS1 Geography Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

GEOGRAPHY

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

______are great elevated land surfaces resulting from intense action of internal forces. They have steep slopes and show distinct peaks. (a) Volcano (b) Mountain (c) Hills
Examples of Fold Mountains include the following except (a) Himalayas (b) Rockies (c) Oceanic
Which one of the following is NOT major types of Mountain (a) fold mountain (b) block mountain (c) cement mountain
The compressional forces produce wrinkling or folding of the earth. The up folds of the wrinkles are called _____ while the down folds are called______ (a) anticlines, syncline. (b) Simple, complex (c) syncline, anticlines
A fold may be simple, but where the compressional forces are complex, it results in _______ (a) recumbent fold (b) asymmetrical folding (c) over thrust fold
Rift valley is associated with …….Mountain. (a) Block (b) Folding (c) Faulting
_______Mountains are made up of lava (a) Block (b) Volcanic (c) Rift
All of the following are important or uses of Mountain except____ (a) for defence (b) climate killing (c) sources of minerals
Which one of the following is a disadvantages of Mountains (a) as tourist centers (b) Formation of rainfall (c) prevent human habitation
The unfolds of the wrinkles produced in fold mountain is known as___(a) synclines (b) anticlines (c) push-ups (d) push downs
Which of these is not a fold mountain (a) Atlas Mountain (b) Himalayas (c) Mt. Kenya (d) Alps
Which of these mountains is produced by faulting? (a) fold mountain (b) residual mountain (c) block mountain (d) volcanic mountain
Another name for “Mountain of Accumulation” is (a) residual mountain (b) fold mountain (c) volcanic mountain (d) block mountain
Mountain Manodnock in USA is an example of (a) fold mountain (b) block mountain (c) volcanic mountain (d) residual mountain
The uplifted area of the level land which is enclosed by fold mountain is known as (a) table land (b) plateau (c) intermont (d) horst
The type of plateau which is formed by agents of denudation is (a) volcanic plateau (b) tectonic plateau (c) residual plateau (d) dissected plateau
Jos Plateau in Nigeria is a good example of (a) Volcanic plateau (b) tectonic plateau (c) Dissected plateau (d) Residual plateau
Which of these plateaux is known as Lava plateau? (a) Volcanic plateau (b) Tectonic plateau (c) Dissected plateau (d) Residual Plateau
Columbia snake plateau is an example of (a) Dissected plateau (b) Volcanic plateau (c) Tectonic plateau (d) Block plateau
_______ are tabular in shape, steep-sided with rough and irregular surface. (a) Mountain (b) Volcano (c) Plateau
All of the following are important or uses of Plateau except __ (a) tourist attraction (b) sources of rivers (c) sources of valuable minerals (d) to promote unity
An extensive area of level or gentle undulating land which is usually a few meters above the sea level is known as (a) Plain (b) Mountain (c) Valley (d) Plateau
Which of these plain is associated with glacier (a) Deltaic Plain (b) Flood Plain (c) Outwash Plains (d) Lacustrine Plains
Plains formed by agents of denudation are known as (a) Dissected Plain (b) Residual Plain (c) Erosional Plains (d) Structural Plain
Which of the following is not a depositional plain (a) Outwash Plains (b) Pedi Plain (c) Deltaic Plain (d) Flood Plain
Great plains of USA is a good example of (a) Volcanic Plains (b) Structural Plains (c) Erosional Plains (d) Depositional Plains
______ is defined as the community of plants and animals living together in harmony and interacting with their physical environment. (a) plateau (b) habitat (c) ecosystem (c) factors
The liquid portion of the earth is called ________ (a) Hydrosphere (b) Biosphere (c) Atmosphere
Animals, man and parasites are grouped as ______ (a) Decomposer (b) Heterotrophs (c) Autotrophs
The relationship between organisms and its physical environment is called __________(a) Environment (b) Ecosystem (c) Community
The best example of autotrophs are ______ (a) Animals (b) Man (c) plants
One of these is not a way an environmental balance is achieved__ (a) Food chain (b) Water cycle (c) Sand cycle
The height of a place above the sea level is known as (a) Latitude (b) Altitude (c) Lapse rate (d) Spot height
Which of these factors does not affect weather and climate (a) Cloud cover (b) Humidity (c) Latitude (d) Natural Vegetation
The instrument used for measuring wind direction is (a) Wind vane (b) Thermometer (c) Anemometer (d) Rain guage
Wet and dry bulb thermometer could be used for measuring (a) Rainfall (b) Relative humidity (c) Temperature (d) Wind speed
Which of the following weather elements is paired with the wrong instrument? (a) Wind direction and wind vane (b) Humidity and anemometer (c) Rainfall and rain guage (d) Atmospheric pressure and barometer
Real objects can be divide into (a) continuous and circulatory (b) discrete and continuous (c) circulatory and discrete
Raster images are used to (a) analyse data (b) interpret data (c) store data
All are physical objects except (a) road (b) mountain (c) river
Which of these is a socio-cultural feature? (a) airport (b) trees (c) lake (d) Language
‘Geo’ refers to (a) description (b) space (c) earth
If the scale of a map is 2cm to 1km, what is the ground distance if the distance between two towns, on the map is 10cm? (a) 5km (b) 6km (c) 7km
If the scale of a map is 1:50,000, What is the ground distance if the distance between two towns on the map is 10cm? (a) 4km (b) 5km (c) 7km
Another name for map reading is___ (a) Map job (b) map work (c) map assignment (d) map shadow
One of these is very vital in map reading (a) paper (b) atlas (c) conventional signs (d) pencil
6km to 10km is a type of _____ (a) statement scale (b) representative scale (c) linear scale (d) representative fraction
The interval between two points on the map is known as (a) bearing (b) distance (c) grid system (d) cardinal points
The first step in the calculation of straight distance is? (a) locate the places involved on the map (b) use a ruler to measure the distance between the two points or places (c) relate the distance measured on the map to the scale given and get the ground distance (d) use a thread to get the distance
The cardinal interval between North and East is (a) North – South (b) North – West (c) West – South (d) North – East

SSS 1 Geography Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.B 2.C 3.C 4.A 5.B 6.A 7.B 8.B 9.C

10.B 11.C 12.C 13.C 14.D 15.C 16.D 17.C

18.A 19.B 20.C 21.D 22.A 23.B 24.C 25.B

26.B 27.C 28.A 29.B 30.A 31.C 32.A 33.B

34.B 35.A 36.B 37.B 38.B 39.B 40.C 41.D

42.C 43.A 44.B 45.B 46.A 47.D 48.B 49.A

50.D

OBJECTIVES = 50 ÷2 = 25

THEORY

(ANSWER 9 QUESTIONS ONLY )

( 9 x 5 = 45)

What is a mountain? State the types of mountains.
Mention two examples of a volcanic mountain.
Give four importance of mountains to man.
State the disadvantages of mountains.
Define Plateaux and state 4 uses of Plateaux
What is a plain? Mention the major types of plains.
Mention any five types of depositional plains.
Differentiate between structural plain and erosional plain.
Explain effects of earth rotation.
What is an ecosystem? And mention 3 importance of environment
What is weather and climate?
Explain the importance of weather and climate.
Mention the instrument used for measuring rainfall.
Mention the three types of rock. Explain the mode of formation of igneous rock.
Define a Map scale and list the 3 types of scale

SS1 Government Examination Question For Second Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

GOVERNMENT

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

The head of government in a parliamentary system of government is called A. President B. Head of state C. Prime Minister D. Governor
A system of government in which the head of state is the same as the head of government is called A. Presidentialism B. Parliamentarianism C. Federalism D. Unitary
Collective responsibility means A. cabinet members are answerable to the people B. ministers must collectively defend government decisions C. cabinet members can collect loan from government D. Ministers are responsible to the people
The head of state in a parliamentary system of government performs —— functions A. ceremonial B. executive C. legislative D. judicial
All but one of the following countries practice parliamentary system of government A. Britain B. Italy C. U.S.A. D. Isreal
The further division of the country into three regions in 1946 by the then Governor of Nigeria Sir Arthur Richards under the __________constitutional arrangements (a) Clifford (b) Richards (c) Lord Luggard (d) Obasanjo
Nigerian federalism can be traced far back to 1914 when the _______protectorates were amalgamated with a unitary form of administration. (a) Northern and Southern (b) Eastern, Northern and Southern (c) Southern, East
_____ is a system of government in which political powers in a country are shared between the central government and the component units. (a) Capitalism (b) Federalism (c) Oligarchy (c) Monarchy
Which of the following is NOT the reasons for the adoption of federalism in Nigeria? (a) tribal difference (b) fear of domination (c) corruption
_____ can be defined as one in which the head of state is also the head of government. (a) parliamentary system of government (b) presidential system of government (c) democracy
_______can be defined as one in which the head of state is different from the head of government. (a) parliamentary system of government (b) presidential system of government (c) democracy
All these countries practice Parliamentary system of government except_______ (a) British (b) Israel (c) Nigeria (d) USA
_______may be defined as a system of government in which a king or a queen is the head of state and the government. (a) Oligarchy (b) Monarchy (c) Monarchy (d) Parliamentary
A__________system of government can be defined as one in which there is an elected head of state called a president, elected by the people for a fixed term of office. (a) Central (b) Republican (c) Democracy (d) Presidential
A sovereign state is referred to as a republic if the country ______(a) has no traditional ruler as a head of state. (b) has traditional ruler as leader (c) has traditional ruler as a village head
Government is constituted strictly by election and there is freedom of the judiciary. (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe (d) I don’t know
The first military coup in Africa took place in Egypt in 1962 when Colonel Gamel Abdel Nasser swept king Farouk off the seat of power. (a) False (b) True (c) Maybe (d) I don’t know
The first military coup in West Africa took place in _______on January 13, 1963 in which President Silvanus Olympio was assassinated (a) Benin (b) Ghana (c) Togo (d) Cameroon
The history of military rule in Nigeria can be divided into___ phases with each having_____regimes or _____head of state. (a) 2,4,,5 (b) 4,4,2 (c) 2,4,4 (d) 2,2,4
The first phase was from 1966-1979; second phase from 1983 October to May 1999. (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe (d) I don’t know
Military rule in West Africa started in A. Nigeria B. Ghana C. Egypt D. Cameroon
Nigeria became a republic in A. 1964 B. 1963 C. 1965 D. 1967
All but one of the following are features of a republic A. absence of election B. the constitution is supreme C. the president is elected popularly D. there is fixed term of office
The first military head of state in Nigeria is A. Yakubu Gowon B. Aguiyi Ironsi C. Murtala Mohammed D. Olusegun Obasanjo
The first military intervention in Africa took place inA. Nigeria B. Togo C. Egypt D. Ghana
A ________may be defined as a whole body of fundamental laws, customs, conventions, principles, rules and regulations according to which a particular government of a country or an organization is governed. (a) constitution (b) government (c) election (d) system
Which one of the following is NOT a source of constitution? (a) Acts of parliament (b) Customs and Norms (c) Conventions (d) Education
A constitution can best be described as A. a general book of laws B. the fundamental laws to guide the government of a state C. the compiled laws of a state D. principles of the society
A constitution must have A. a frame B. a preamble C. lessons to learn D. conclusion
All are the sources of a constitution except A. historical documents B. intellectual works C. sources of income D. customs and traditions
A constitution specifies the A. religious belief of the people B. state of mind C. modus operandi D. movement of people
The essence of the constitution is to A. safeguard the rights and freedom of the citizens B. suppress the views of the minority groups C. encourage military intervention in politics D. encourage dictatorship
There are ____ types of constitution (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2
____ refers to a constitution that is written down. (a) Unwritten (c) written (c) writing (d) non-writing
Examples of countries with federal constitution are the following except___ (a) UK (b) USA (c) Brazil (d) Nigeria
Examples of countries with a written constitution are the following except ______ (a) Nigeria (b) France (c) USA (d) UK
___________constitution refers to when the whole body of fundamental laws, customs, conventions, rules, and regulations according to which a particular government of a country operates are not written down or codified in a single document. (a) written (b) Non-written (c) Non-writing
Examples of countries with unwritten constitution are the following except__ (a) Canada (b) Gambia (c) New Zealand (d) Nigeria
A ______constitution refers to the one in which governmental powers that exists in the country are shared between a central government that represents whole country and government of component states so that each government is legally and constitutionally independent. (a) state (b) local (c) government (d) federal
A______constitution refers to one that concentrates authority in a single central government. It does not share governmental powers with any other subordinate government. (a) unitary (b) federal (c) democracy (d) federalism
The judicial organ of government is the body which A. implements the law B. interprets the law C. make the law D. enforces the law
The independence of the judiciary can be enhanced in all the following cases except where A. the salaries of judges are drawn from a consolidated fund B. judges are granted special immunity C. the president is also the chief judge D. there is adequate security for judges
Impeachment as an instrument of check on the executive is useful mainly in a A. Cabinet system B. Unitary system C. Presidential system D. federal
The head of the judiciary in Nigeria was A. the Chief Justice B. the Chief Judge C. Minister of Justice D. Attorney General
The Appellate court in Nigeria is called——- A. Supreme court B. Appeal court C. High court D. Magistrate court
Professor A.V. Dicey propounded the following____ tenants or features of the rule of law (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 d) 5
In Dicey’s view, all men are not equal before the law of the land. No man is above the law. (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe (d) I don’t know
The limitation on the right to life can be found A. in the government B. in the executive C. in the case of a convicted person for murder D. in the church
One of the modern principles of government found in the traditional political system of the Yoruba’s is that of A. checks and balances B. the rule of law C. Bicameralism D. unicameral
Delayed justice can lead to A. honesty B. education C. denied justice D. peace and unity

SSS 1 Government Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.B 2.A 3.A 4.B 5.C 6.B 7.A 8.B 9.C

10.B 11.A 12.D 13.C 14.B 15.A 16.A 17.B

18.C 19.C 20.A 21.C 22.B 23.A 24.B 25.B

26.A 27.D 28.B 29.B 30.C 31.C 32.A 33.C

34.C 35.A 36.D 37.B 38.C 39.D 40.A 41.B

42.C 43.C 44.A 45.A 46.B 47.B 48.C 49.A

50.C

OBJECTIVES = 50 ÷2 = 25

THEORY

(ANSWER 5 QUESTIONS ONLY )

( 5 x 9 = 45)

1. Differentiate between presidential and parliamentary system of government.

How did the Richards constitution promote federalism in Nigeria?
What is federalism? State the reasons for adopting federalism in a state.
Define a presidential system of government. And Give 5 features of a presidential system of government.
Define parliamentary system of government. And State 5 features of parliamentary system of government.
What is Monarchy? And List 5 features of Monarchy.
What is a republican government? And List 5 features of a republican government.
State 5 features of military rule.
Differentiate between a republican and monarchical government.
Define constitution and Mention 6 sources of constitution.

SS1 ICT Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

I.C.T

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

A_____is a device which store accept, and process into an information (a) hardware (b) software (c) system unit (d) computer
Computer consist of two major parts to function which are _____ (a) programs, software (b) system unit, peripherals (c) hardware and software (d) unit device
Which of these is NOT characteristics of computer? (a) Application (b) Accuracy (c) Storage (d) Versatility
Computer _____ is a collection of computer programs, procedures of algorithms and documentation into the computer system (a) device (b) system software (c) system hardware (d) system unit
One of the most important software on the computer system is_____(a) word processors (b) adobe photoshop (c) corel draw (d) spreadsheet ( Excel)
Which one of these is NOT an examples of operating system? (a) windows 2000 (b) windows 2002 (c) windows XP (d) Windows Vista
Which one of the following is NOT types of operating system? (a) command based (b) language translators (c) number base (d) single user
_____________system is a software consisting of programs and data that runs on computers manage its hardware resources for execution (a) windows (b) operating (c) computer (d) device
Which of these is NOT an examples of utility program? (a) scan disk (b) Anti-virus (c)) assemblers (d) windows explorer
______software allows human ( the user) to accomplish one or more specific task (a) hard (b) system (c) application (d) disk
Which one of these is NOT an examples of software found in most computers? (a) User (b) Corel draw (c) Ms Excel (d) Ms word
Which one of these is NOT types of application software? (a) user (b) application packages (c) web design
Examples of general purpose is ________ (a) payroll programs (b) accounting (c) word processing
Example of specific purpose ____(a) game (b) spreadsheet (c) educational management software
_______ application is used for typing document (a) Ms word (b) Ms Excel (c) Corel draw
_______ application is used for presenting of business packages (a) Ms Power point (b) Ms word (c) Corel draw
______ application is used for graphics designs and images (a) Corel draw (b) Ms Word (c) Ms Excel
_____ application is used for payroll, register document (a) Ms word (b) Ms excel (c) Corel draw
A____ language is a set of grammatical rules for instructing a computer to perform a specific tasks (a) progams (b) programing (c) programmers
Which one of these is NOT level of programing language (a) middle (b) low level (c) average level (d) high level
Which one of these is NOT an example of programing language? (a) Pascal (b) Java (c) Device (d) Fortran
______ level languages is not directly understood by the hardware (a) low (b) high (c) middle (d) average
_______ is one of the simplest programming languages (a) FORTRAN (b) COBOL (c) BASIC (d) OS ( Operating system)
If LET is used to assign a value to variable the ____is used to calculate total of two numbers (a) CLS (b) Input (c) REM (d) PRINT

Express the following using these parameters to answers questions 25-30. If A= 10, B=3, C=6, D=5

25. B* (C*D) = (a) 90 (b) 100 (c) 60 (d) 125

26. ( C*D) = (a) 30 (b) 35 (c) 25 (d) 11

27. A + B* ( C*D) = (a) 380 (b) 390 (c) 90 (d) 100

28. ( C*D) / 5 = (a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 30 (d) 35 (e) 70

29. A*B*( A+C) = (a) 10×3+10+6 (b) 30+10+6 (c) 10×48 (d) 10 x 400

30. 33 is __ (a) B+CD (b) B^CD (c) C +BD (d) B*DB

SSS 1 ICT Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.D 2.C 3.A 4.B 5.C

6.B 7.C 8.B 9.C 10.C

11.A 12.C 13.C 14.C 15.A

16.A 17.A 18.B 19.B 20.C

21.C 22.A 23.C 24.C 25.A

26.A 27.D 28.A 29.C 30.A

SECTION: THEORY

– Answer 3 out of 5

1A. What is computer software

1B. List 2 types of computer software

1C. List 3 computer software games that can be found on the phone

2A. What is programing language?

2B. List the three basic level of programming language

2C. Write 2 differences between love and high level language

3A. Define Operating System

3B. List 4 operating system that you know

4A. Write the meaning of BASIC programming

4B. List 4 Basic statements in BASIC

4C. List out the Basic Arithmetic operators with their symbols

5A. Explain ICT

5B. List 3 products of ICT

5C. List 2 types of ICT

5D. Write the full meaning of these words ( MAN, LAN, WAN, OCT, OS, UPS, GSM, ATM, PAN )

Senior Secondary School Questions Term 2 Year 10. SS1 Examination Questions and answers for second term Obj and Theory –Edudelight Exam

SS1 Literature in English Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

LITERATURE-IN-ENGLISH

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

What is the major device deployed in the following remark: “At the fall of the house they lived in, the widow lost her husband, her sewing machine and her ear-rings”? (a) metaphor (b) oxymoron (c) bathos (d) simile
What is the dominant device exemplified in this sentence: “I came, I saw but was conquered”? (a) allusion (b) blank verse (c) free verse (d) illusion
A deliberate understatement in which one uses the negative in order to express the opposite of what is meant is__(a) anti-thesis (b) litotes (c) hyperbole (d) apostrophe
The expression of the exact opposite of what one means or has in mind even though the words are not supposed to be taken at face value is___(a) sarcasm (b) euphemism (c) irony (d) metonymy
What figure of speech is prominent in “The US is making use of many Nigerian scientific brains in her technological programmes”? (a) synecdoche (b) metonymy (c) metaphor (d) oxymoron
To drive the meaning of a word through its sound is referred to as____(a) phonetics (b) phoneme (c) oxymoron (d) onomatopoeia
When two words opposite in meaning stand shoulder to shoulder in a remark, a figure of speech known as___ has been used. (a) enjambment (b) oxymoron (c) melodrama (d) hyperbole
Which of the following is not a theme in second class citizen? (a) marriage without love (b) stubborn female (c) feminist temper (d) reliable husbandhood
This question is based on Buchi Emecheta’s Second Class Citizen.Pa Noble became a living legend because A. several conflicting stories were woven around him B. he attained the status of a first-class citizen C. he was the only successful son of a Benin chief D. he was rich and very generous
The pregnant Adah had to starve while at work because … (a) She had spent all her pay to single-handedly take care of her family. (b) she didn’t take care of the family (c) she was selfish with her family
Who has Adah blamed for Vicky’s illness? (a) Francis (b) Segun (c) Fausat (d) Trudy
What is Francis’s reaction to the news of Vicky’s disease diagnosis? (a) He ran away (b) He cries along with Adah (c) He wept alone
Which worker at North Finchley Library is engaged to be married? (a) Cynthia (b) Francis (c) Adah
What is the name of the hospital where Vicky is taken after falling ill at Trudy’s place? (a) Royal House (b) Royal Theatre (c) Royal Free Hospital.
What is Vicky’s age at the time he falls seriously ill? (a) 2 yrd old (b) 1 year old (c) 3 yr old
What began the separation of Adah and Francis as a married couple? (a) The Bride Price (b) The burnt opf the her first manuscript (b) A & B (c) The illness
In The novel, Second class Citizen, Adah was also known as____(a) the maid character (b) The full character (c) the chief character
The word ‘Second-class =” in the novel pertains to ___(a) girls who in African culture are less rated than boys (b ) boys partially rated than girls (c) girls are rated than boys
Adah is rated second-class citizen by who? (a) friend (b) husband (c) Francis (d) B & C
Adah forced herself into the ___school and the neighbor was a ___(a) teacher, Methodist (b) Ruthina , teacher (c) Methodist, Teacher
In Chapter 13 (Part 2), while members of the Amen Kristi Church are on an evangelical mission in Egba___ begins (a) religious persecution (b) election (c) peace
The settings of Unexpected Joy at down are the following except___(a) the historical moment (b) geographical location (c) Set in Between Ghana and Kenya (d) Set between Ghana Nigeria
Which of the following is not plot background of the story in Unexpected Joy at dawn? (a) Nii and Mama Ojo The two siblings (b) The alleged fraud (c) the deportation and hardship (d) marriage vow
All of the following are notable themes in Unexpected Joy at Dawn except___(a) Corruption (b) Xenophobia (c) Farming (d) Economic mess
The technique or style in Unexpected Joy at dawn is ____(a) complex plot featuring two protagonist (b) three protagonist (c) simple lot 4 protagonist
A story which explains a natural phenomenon is___A. legend B. parable. C. myth. D. fiction
A narrative in which characters and events are invented is___A. fiction. B. epistolary. C. auto-biography. (d) Biography
In Black Woman Novel, Lines and stanzas are to poetry as action and dialogue are to A. music. B. prose. C. fiction. D. drama
The performers in a play constitute the A. chorus. B. characters. C. audience. D. cast
The types of literary work are A. eras. B. episodes. C. genres. D. cantos.

SSS 1 Literature Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.A 3.B 4.C 5.A

6.D 7.B 8.D 9.A 10.A

11.D 12.B 13.A 14.C 15.B

16.C 17.A 18.A 19.D 20.C

21.A 22.C 23.D 24.C 25.A

26.C 27.A 28.D 29.D 30.B

THEORY-

ANSWER 5 ONLY

1a. Discuss Francis as a failed Husband

1b. Discuss the theme of the stubborn woman in marriage

2a. Describe In details How Mr. Noble came to be a landlord

2b. Would you consider Adah as a good mother?

3a.What are the themes in Unexpected joy at dawn?

3b. Discuss the theme of ‘death’ in the novel.

3c. Write short notes on these characters;

Moses Nii Tackie
Massa Awosika
Joe Boye

4a. Explain the use of Apostrophe in the poem Black woman

4b. Explain the purpose of the write in the poem

SS1 Marketing Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

MARKETING

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

A____refers to a place where goods and services are bought and sold. (a) shop (b) market (c) junction (d) garage
____ is a market where businessmen obtain short-term loans, for the financing of their business transactions (a) money market (c) commodity market (c) capital market
All of the following are features of a market except (a) medium of exchange (b) meeting place (c) caller
A___is a building or part of a building where goods are displayed and sold to customers. (a) shop (b) market (c) loan
____ purchase goods to use in their ongoing operations and to resell to consumers (a) consumers (b) organization (c) manufacturer
_____ purchase goods for their personal use (a) consumer (b) organization (c) manager
____ generally purchase goods in larger volumes than individuals (a) consumers (b) organizations (c) manufacturing
Organizations often purchase in bulk, whereas consumers typically do not. (a) false (b) maybe (c) true
____typically purchase goods for different reasons than organizations (a) Consumers (b) managers (c) producers
____ organizational clients requires explaining how your products and services will help their organization serve their clients and customers (a) marketing (b) advertising (c) researching
A consumer market does not applies to both goods and services. (a) False (b) True
Demographic characteristics are based on factors such as ____(a) market (b) occupation (b) war (d) travelling
A company can target people aged between 18-30 years or 60 years and above. (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe
____ characteristics are based on climate, population density, region, market size, and urban factors (a) behaviouristic (b) Demographical (c) Geographical
___items includes digital and electronic devices used for private purposes (a) electronic (b) leisure (c) music
_____ customers purchase items for resale to make a profit rather than for personal use (a) consumer market (b) wholesale market (c) commodity market
____ is a critical activity in the consumer market as it influences the decisions and preferences of consumers (a) consumer rights (b) consumer marketing (c) buyers
A capital good is any good used for production (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe
Consumer goods are those used by consumers and have no future productive use. (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe
____goods are any tangible asset used by a business to produce goods or services for consumer goods or for use by other businesses (a) market (b) capital (c) consumer
___good is any good purchased for consumption and not used later to produce another consumer good (a) consumer (b) capital (c) sales
Examples of consumer goods include the following except (a) food (b) clothing (c) road
Consumer goods can be classified into the following except (a) specialty goods (b) convenience goods (c) drug abuse
The sale of most consumer goods is overseen by the__(a) CPN (b) CPS (c) CP
The factors that influence consumer behaviour is ___(a) age (b) weather (c) culture
Naturally, people do follow a certain pattern of living known as the family___ (a) life cycle (b) life style (c) life worth (d) life valued
___ decision process connotes a choice on what to buy, how much to spend, what alternative to acquire and where to purchase it (a) wholesaler (b) consumer (c) retailer
____ influence may be due to a foreseeable change in business condition, a new technological invention or development (a) environmental factors (b) organizational factors (c) consumer factors
There are__broad categories of factors that influence organizational buyer behavior (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5
Marketing organizations need to assess the strengths and weaknesses of these factors and analyze how they affect their customers (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe

THEORY

– ANSWER ONLY 3

1a. Define Market and list any types you know

1b. Write 3 differences between consumer market and organizational market

2a. State and explain 3 characteristics of consumer market

2b. State and explain types of organizational market

3a. Explain consumer behaviour

3b. State 3 factors that influence consumer behaviour

4a. Explain consumer decisions process

4b. Explain organization buying behaviour

SSS 1 Marketing Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.B 2.A 3.C 4.A 5.B 6.A 7.B 8.C 9.A

10.C 11.A 12.B 13.A 14.C 15.A 16.B 17.B

18.A 19.A 20.B 21.A 22.C 23.C 24.B 25.C

26.A 27.B 28.A 29.B 30.A

SS1 Mathematics Examination Questions For Second Term

S.S.S ONE ( SENIOR CLASS 1)

MATHEMATICS

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A:

Instruction: Answer all questions

Factorize 4x² – 4x – 3 = 0 (a) x =+ ³/₂, x = –¹/₂ (b) x = – ³/₂, x = –¹/₂ (c) x = + ³/₂, x = + ¹/₂ (d) x = +5, x = –¹/₂
Find x , if 2x² – x – 6 = 0 (a) x = – ³/₂, x = –¹/₂ (b) x = – ³/₂, x = +2 (c) x = + ³/₂, x = +2 (d) x = -2, x = –¹/₂
Factorize x² – 2x – 15 (a) (x +5) (x +3) (b) (x – 5) (x +3) (c) (x +5) (x – 3) (d) (x – 5) (x – 3)
The polynomial equation whose highest degree is two is called a___equation (a) fraction (c) simplify (c) quadratic
Which of the following is not a method of solving quadratic equations? (a) square root (b) factorization (c) cube root
What is the solution of x² + 4 = 0? (a) x=2 or –2 (b) x=2 or -1 (c) x=2 or +2
The general form of a quadratic equation is____(a) ax² + bx + c = 1 (b) ax² + bx + c = 0 (c) ax² + bx + xc = 0
4x² – 5x + 1 = 0 (a). x = 1, ¼ (b). x = -1, ¼ (c). 1, 1 (d). ¼ , 1
2x² – 14x – 13 = 0 (a). 5+53/2, 7+53/2 (b). 7+53/2, 5+53/2 (c). 7+53/2, 7-53/2 (d). 7+56/2, 7+3/2
3x² + x – 2 = 0 (a). x = 2/3, -1 (b). x = -2/3, 1 (c). x = -2/3, -1 (d). x = -2/3, 1
3×2+4x+1=0 (a). x =-1, -1/3 (b). x = 1, -1/3 (c). x=-1, 1/3 (d). x=1, 1/3
2x² – 3x – 6 (a). ¾, 4/9 (b). ¾, -9/4 (c). 9/4, ¾ (d). 9/5, ¾
The solutions in quadratic graph equations are given by the___ points where the graph intersects the x-axis. (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1
The elements of a set may be objects, names, points, lines, numbers or idea (a) true (b) false (c ) maybe
___ is a general name for any group or collection of distinct elements (a) value (b) numbers (c) sets
A set is denoted by all except___ (a) P (b) Q, (c) R (d) Vowels
What is the element of these set A = {Odd numbers from 1 to 21} (a) { 1,3,5,7,9,11,13,15,17,19,21} (b) {1, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15, 30} (c) {1, 3, 5, 6, 10, 5, 6}
List the members of this set A= {x: 5< x< 8} (a) {6, 9} (b) {6, 7} (c) {7, 7}
____ set is a set in which all its members can be listed (a) infinite (b) definite (c) finite
set is a set in which all its members cannot be listed (a) infinite (b) definite (c) finite
___ is a set that contains all the members under consideration for any given problem. It is denoted by µ or € (a) complementary set (b) universal set (c) intersection set
A____ is a collection of points where all the points are equidistant from the given point called the centre (a) circumference (b) circle (c) radius
_____ The boundary of the circle is known as the (a) distance (b) radius (c) circumference
The line from the centre ”O” of the circle to the circumference of the circle is called the__(a) distance (b) radius (c) circumference
Find the area and circumference of a circle having the diameter value of 10 cm? (a) A=78.5 cm^2,C=31. 4 cm (b) A=87.5 cm^2,C=21. 4 cm (c) A and B
____ length is better defined as the distance along the part of the circumference of any circle or any curve (a) arc (b) distance (c) cord
The endpoints between any straight line distance in the length of an arc is called____(a) radius (b) chord (c) diameter
Calculate the arc length of a curve with sector area 25 square units and the central angle as 2 radians (a) 5 units (b) 10 units (c) 15 units
Calculate the arc length of a curve with sector area 25 square units and radius as 2 units 9a) 30 units (b) 10 units (c) 25 units
The angle of the sector is___ (a) 360° (b) 390° (c) 160°
If the angle of the sector with radius 4 units is 45°, then find the length of the sector (a) l = 22/14 (b) l = 22/7 (c) l = 23/7
Find the area of the sector when the radius of the circle is 16 units, and the length of the arc is 5 units (a) 40 square units (b) 30 square units (c) 15 sq unit
A circular arc whose radius is 12 cm, makes an angle of 30° at the centre. Find the perimeter of the sector formed. Use π = 3.14 (a) 30.20cm (b) 30.21cm (c) 30.28cm
__ angle is defined as the ratio of the side opposite (perpendicular side) to that angle to the hypotenuse (a) cosine (b) sine (c) tangent
In triangle ABC, A= 38⁰, B = 27⁰, and b = 17cm. find a and c (a) A=23cm, C=34cm (b) A=25cm, C=35cm (c) A=20cm, C=34cm
In any triangle, the longest side correspond to the largest angle while the shortest side corresponds to the smallest angle (a) true (b) false (c) maybe
Given that A = 120⁰, b = 7cm, c= 12cm. Solve the triangle completely (a) a = 17.6cm, B = 23.5⁰ and C = 38.5⁰ (b) a = 16.6cm, B = 21.5⁰ and C = 38.5⁰
Angle of ____ is the angle formed between the eye level of the observer and the object below when the observer is above the object at view (a) depression (b) elevation (c) circle
A ladder 50m long rests against a vertical wall. If the ladder makes an angle of 65⁰ with the ground, find the distance between the foot of the ladder and the wall (a) PR = 24.13m (b) PR = 20.13m (c) PR = 21.13m
Find the bearing of A from B if B from A is 140⁰ (a) 300⁰ (b) 320⁰ (c) 330⁰

SSS 1 Mathematics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.A 2.C 3.B 4.C 5.C 6.A 7.B 8.A 9.C

10.C 11.A 12.B 13.B 14.A 15.C 16.D 17.A

18.B 19.C 20.A 21.B 22.B 23.C 24.B 25.A

26.A 27.B 28.B 29.C 30.A 31.B 32.A 33.C

34.B 35.A 36.A 37.B 38.A 39.C 40.B

THEORY

1. Given that µ= {all the days of the week}, B= {all days of the week whose letter begin with s}

1. List all the elements of µ

2. List the members of B

3. What is n (µ)

4. What is n(µ) + n(B)

Solution:

1.µ = {Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday}

2. B = {Sunday, Saturday}

3. n (µ) = 7

4. n (µ) + n(B) = 7 + 2= 9

2. (a) 5x² − 3x − 1 = 0 is a quadratic equation in quadratic form where a=5, b=−3, c=−1

(b) 5 + 3t − 4.9t² = 0 is a quadratic equation in quadratic form.

3. Solve the equation x² + x – 3 = 0 by drawing its graph for –3 ≤ x ≤ 2. (b) What is meant by the sector of a circle? (c) What is the formula for the arc length of the sector of a circle? (c) What is the formula for the area of the sector of a circle?

4. Chain rule If p, q and r, are three statements such that p Þ q and q Þ r.

Example I: Consider the arguments

Premise T₁: If a student works very hard, he passes his examination

Premise T₂: If a student passes his examination he is awarded a certificate.

Conclusion T₃: If a student works very hard, he is awarded a certificate.

SOLUTION

Let p be the statement “a student works very hard”

Let q be the statement “a student passes his examination”

Let r be the statement “a student is awarded a certificate”

‘The argument has the following structural form.

p Þ q and q Þ r \ p Þ r

This argument follows the chain rule link hence u is said to be valid.

5. Write down the inverse, converse and contrapositive of each of these statements.

(i) If the bank workers work hard they will be adequately compensated.

(ii) If he is humble and prayerful, he will meet with God’s favour.

(iii) If he sets a good example, he will get a good followership

5.A triangle has sides of length 7cm, 8cm, 9cm. Express the cosine of the smallest angle of the triangle as a fraction in its lowest terms.

5B.Solve the triangle completely in the ∆ABC such that B = 34.5⁰, c = 2.8cm, ⁡‽

a = 5.1cm.

SS1 Physics Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

PHYSICS

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

The instrument which is used to check the temperature of a body or object is called _____ (a)Windvane (b)Mercury (c)Alcohol (d)Thermometer
The upper fixed point of kelvin scale is ______ (a)372k (b)382k (c)373k (d)383k
The lower fixed point of farenheit scale is ______ (a) 32⁰F (b) 33⁰F (c) 34⁰F (d) 35⁰F
The process where a liquid turns into vapour below its boiling point is _____ (a)condensation (b)evaporation (c)vapourization (d)freezing
_____ is the change from liquid to vapour at upper fixed points (a)boiling point (b)melting point (C)freezing point (d)None
______ is a concept of physics that deals with the study of relative motion of fluid (liquid and gas) from one body to another (a)thermometer (b)expansibility (c)heat (d)temperature
The degree of hotness and coldness of a body is called _____ (a)thermometer (b)expansitivity (c)heat (d)temperature
Heat is measured in _____ (a)kilogram (b)Joules (c)Celsius (d)Kelvin
Temperature is measured in _____ (a)kilogram (b)Joules (c)Mass (d)Kelvin
Which of the following is not an effect of heat? A. expansion B. contraction C. change of state. D. increase in weight
Temperature can be measured in the following units except A. degree Celsius B. kelvin C. degree Fahrenheit D. centigrade-meter
When heat is extracted from water it changes from liquid to gas. What is this process called____(a) vaporization (b) evaporation (c) condensation
The process of by which a gas is converted to a solid is called____(a) sublimation (b) deposition (c) vaporize
Fahrenheit is a unit for_____ (a) heat (b) gas (c) temperature (a) water
____ is the process by which heat energy is transferred in a fluid (liquid or gas) by actual movement of the heated fluid (a) vaporization (b) evaporation (c) convection
_____ is the process by which heat is transferred or conveyed from one place / point to another without heating the interview medium (a) radiation (b) convection (c) vaporization
Which one is not feature of a thermo flask? (a) cork support (b) silvered wall surface (c) blue black
The silver surface of a thermos flask minimizes heat loss by A. conduction B. radiation C. convection D. evaporation

Is it advisable to wear a dark shirt in the tropical sun? A. yes it is B. No it is not C. Cannot say D. All of the above
The following are good conductors of heat except A. steel B. aluminium C. copper D. wool
The thermal conductivity of copper is greater than lead A. true B. false C. cannot say D. none of the above
The rate of heat conduction through the lead is greater than the rate of heat conduction through the copper (a) false (b) true (c) maybe
A stone floor feels warm to the feet but a rug or a carpet on the same floor feels cold A. true B. false C. cannot say D. none of the above
Gaps are left in the construction of railway tracks to give room for___A. contraction B. evaporation C. expansion D. vaporization
When hot water is poured in a glass tumbler, it might crack due to the …… of the inner walls of the tumbler A. even expansion B. uneven expansion C. uneven contraction D. even contraction
The stopper of a bottle can be removed due to the …… of the glass A. contraction B. expansion C. evaporation D. none of the above
The following are advantages of thermal expansion of solids except A. bimetallic thermometer B. fire alarm C. sagging of overhead wire D. fitting of wheels in rims
____ expansivity of a solid can be defined as increase in length per unit length, per unit degree rise in temperature (a) linear (b) quantum (c) ion
The SI unit of linear expansivity is ……… A. per Celsius B. per Fahrenheit C. per Kelvin D. per Joules
A blacksmith heated a metal whose cubic expansivity is 6.3 x 10^-6K^-1. The area expansivity is__A. 6.3 x 10^-6K^-1 B. 4.2 x 10^-6K^-1 C. 2.1 x 10^-6K^-1 D. 2.0 x 10^-6K^-1

SSS 1 Physics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.A 2.B 3.C 4.A 5.A

6.C 7.A 8.B 9.B 10.D

11.A 12.B 13.A 14.A 15.B

16.A 17.A 18.C 19.B 20.A

21.B 22.B 23.A 24.C 25.A

26.B 27.B 28.C 29.D 30.A

THEORY

1a. Differentiate between heat and temperature.

1b. Mention five effect of heat.

2a. Mention five types of thermometer you know

2b. Give 2 merits and demerits of mercury and alcohol

2c. Give 2 reasons why water is not used as a thermometric

3a Define the following terms A. conduction B. Convection C. Radiation

3b. State two application of radiation

4a. Mention four effects of thermal expansion of solid.

4b. Mention four the advantages and disadvantages of thermal expansion of solid

5a. What is electrostatic?

5b. Explain Conductors and Insulators

SOLUTIONS

Heat is a concept of physics that deals with the study of relative motion of fluid (liquid and gas) from one body to another. It is a form of energy that can be transferred from one body due to temperature differences.

Differences between Heat and Temperature

Heat is a measure of the total internal energy of a body while temperature is the degree of hotness or coldness of the body.
Heat takes place due to temperature difference while temperature occurs due to slight change of substance.
Heat is measured in joules while temperature is measured in Kelvin / Celsius.

Effect of Heat

When heat is applied to a body the following effect may occur

Expansion: when heat is applied, volumes increases while density decreases.
Change in temperature: When heat is added on a body, the temperature increases
Change of state: melting, freezing, condensation, evaporation etc.
Thermion emission: Addition of heat on metal may result in the emission of electron from the surface of the metal
Photo electric emission: The emission of electron when sufficient light of high frequency is illuminated on a metal surface e.g. zinc plate.
Clinical Thermometer
Thermoeletric thermometer
Resistant thermometer
Bimetallic Thermometer
Constant volume gas thermometer

ADVANTAGES OF MERCURY AS A THERMOMETRIC SUBSTANCE

Mercury does not wet glass
Mercury response quickly to slight change in temperature
The liquid does not vaporize easily
Mercury is opaque Hence, it can be seen easily
It has a regular or uniform expansion.

DISADVANTAGES

Mercury is expensive
Mercury can not be used to measure very low temperature because it’s freezing

point – 39˚C

ADVANTAGES OF ALCOHOL AS A THERMOMETRIC SUBSTANCE

Alcohol is less expensive than mercury
It has larger expansion on heating than mercury (it expands 6 times more than

mercury).

It can be used to measure very low temperature.

DISADVANTAGES

It is not opaque and so most be colored
It vaporizes easily
It wet glass
It has an irregular expansion
It has low boiling point of 78˚C

CONDUCTION

This is the process of transfer of heat through a material by vibration of the molecules fixed in position. N.B. Metals that allow heat to pass through them are said to be good conductors of heat

CONVECTION

Convection is the process by which heat energy is transferred in a fluid (liquid or gas) by actual movement of the heated fluid.

RADIATION

Radiation is the process by which heat is transferred or conveyed from one place / point to another without heating the interview medium

APPLICATION OF RADIATION

It is not advisable to wear a dark shirt in the tropical sun.
Roofs of factories are coated with aluminum paint.
Shinning roofs and outside walls are painted with light colour in hot climate to keep the house cool.

Cooking utensils are darkening at the bottom and polished in the upper surface.

5A. Electrostatics is the study of charges at rest. It is a type of electricity that does not move from one point to another in the substance in which it is produced.

5B. Conductors are materials that allow electrons to pass through them easily. Examples of conductors are metals, damp air, graphite, acids, salt solutions, the earth, and the human body.

Insulators are materials that do not allow electrons to pass through them easily. Examples of insulators are plastic, polythene, Bakelite, ebonite, paper, dry hair, silk, oils, glass, sulphur and wood.

SS1 Yoruba Examination Question For Second Term

SENIOR ONE (1) S.S. 1

YORUBA LANGUAGE
2ND TERM EXAMINATION

DAHUN GBOGBO IBEERE TI O WA NI IPIN YII

AKAYE

Ka Ayoka yi daradara ko si dahun ibeere ti o te lee

Adio ati iyawo re Abeke je agbe oni koko ni abule koko legbee Oyo. Lojo kan o pe gbogbo awon omo re jo lati mo ero okan won, ki o si gba won ni imoran. Adio bi kayode to je akobi pe iru ise wo ni o wuu lati se ti o ba di ojo iwaju? Logan ni kayoed dahun pe ise agbejoro lo wa lokan oun lati se ti olorun ba gba fun oun.

Ajike ni won bi tele kayode, oun naa so fun baba re pe ise dokita Oyinbo lo wa lokan oun lati se, ki oun baa le maa se itoji awon Alaisan.

Ayodele to je abike yin Adio je eni omo odun mewaa ni ile-iwe alako bere O dahun.pe ise oluko lo w.oun lati se iojo iwaju nitori pe inu oun maa dun ti oun bari awon oluko oun ile-iwe Inu Adio ati Abeke dun lati gbo oro to dara lati enu awon Omo won. Adio, tubo gba won ni imoran pe ki won gbajumo eko won, ki won ma baa se eru egbe won, o si pinnu lati se atileyin fun won.

IBEERE

Tani o peawon omo re jo ninu akaye yi? [a] Kayode [b] Adio [c) Oladelc-
______ni akobininu awon omo Abeke [al kavode [blAvodefe Tcl Ajike
Iru ise wo niAjike fe se lojo iwaju? jaj ise agbe [b] Ise dokita [c] Ise agbede
Tani ninu warigte se ise oluko lojo iwaju? [a] Kayode [b}Ajike [c] Ayodele
______ni iye omo ti Adio bi? [a] omo meta [b] omo marun-un [c) omo mefa
Oruko miran ti Yoruba n pe aroko oniroyin ni____ (a) Aroko alapejuwe [b] Aroko asotan [c] aroko alalaye
Gbolohun abode je gbolohun _____ (a) gbolohun eleyo oro-ise (b) gbolohun olopo oro-ise (c) gbolohun ase
Ojo ___ ni Yoruba maa n so Omokun-rin ni aye atijo (a) kesan (b) kejo (c) keji
Ewo ni kii se oruko amutorunwa ninu wonyii? (a) ajayi (b) ojo (c) Aloa
Oruko bii, malomo, kokumo, durojaiye, je apeere oruko____(a) abiso (b) oriki (c) abiku
“Dalemosu” ni ile Yoruba tumo si____ (a) sese se igbeyawo (b) duro si ile oko re (c) ko kuro ni ile oko re, pada si le baba re
“Bi oko, ba moju aya tun, alarina a yeba je yo ninu asa____(a) ikomojade (b) igbeyawo (c) oye jije
‘Balaga’ tumo si ____(a) se wahala (b) tojuu bo (c) so ododo
Igbese akoko ninu eto liana Igbeyawo abinibi ni___(a) itoro (b) idana (c) ifojusode
____ ni baba-nla awon Yoruba (a) lamurudu (b) oduduwa (c) oranmiyan
Ise abinibi ile Yoruba ni ____(a) telo (b) iwe tite (c) ode
Ibudo ti won ti n ro oko, ada, obe, ibon nia n pen i ___(a) ile-iwe (b) agbede (c) orita-meta
_____ ni Onka fun ‘1000’ (a) egbeta (b) egberin (c) egberun
Ohun elo paraki fun ikoko mimo ni____(a) paiko (b) amo (c) ileke
____ je ona kan Pataki ti awon omo ile Yoruba gba n ran-ara won lowo (a) esusu (b) aranmo (c) ifojusode
Ewo ni ko si lara ikati o le pa eniyan? (a) ijanba (b) aisan (c) itufo
_____ ni eto ikeyin ti a se fun oku (a) isinku (b) isomoloruko (c) ikomojade
‘Bola pelu iya re sun’ Ewo ni oro asopo ninu gbolohun yi? (a) sun (b) iya re (c) pelu
‘Terigbaso’ tumo si_____(a) ku (b) yagbe (c) daju
‘Je ori ahun’ tumo si____(a) waja (b) daju (c) iyanu
Irufe gbolohun won i eyi “Ta ni baba re’? (a) gbolohun ase (b) gbolohun ibeere (c) gbolohun akiyesi alatenumo
“Paddle your canoe” tumo si ___(a) gbo tire (b) asiri tu (c) se tire
“Human confidence is vanity” tumo si ____(a) igbekele eniyan dara (b) igbekele eniyan asan ni (c) igbekele eniyan soro
“It is good to be generous” tumo si___(a) o dara ki eniyan lawo (b) o dara ki eniyan buru (c) o dara lati lawo
“A tree does not make a forest” tumo si ___(a) igi kan wa ninu igbo (b) igi kan le wa ninu igbo (c) igi kan ko le da igbo se

IPIN KEJI – DAHUN IBEERE META

1.. Ko arukoti ko din ni igba (200) yo oro lori okan ninu ori-oro wonyii

(a) Ayeye igbeyawo (b) Ise ti o tu mi lati se lojo iwaju (c) Ijanba oko ti o soju mi

2.. Daruko eya gbolohun marun-un. Salaye meta ninu eya gbolohun ti o daruko pelu Apeere

3.. Koa won igbese igbeyawo abinibi. Daruko awon Ise abinibi ile Yoruba pelu ohin elo won (marun-un)

4.. Koa won figo wonyii ni Onka

i. 100 =

ii. 200 =

iii. 300 =

iv. 400 =

v. 500 =

SS1 Agricultural Science Examination Question For Second Term

SENIOR CLASS ONE ( S.S.1)

AGRICULTURAL – SCIENCE

2^ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

All these farm animals are polygastric animals except A. cattle B. goat C. rabbit D. sheep
The branch of ecology which deals with the study of a single species of organism and its interaction with the environment is known as… A. autecology B. synecology C. entomology D. pathology
Climatic factors include the following except… A. wind B. sunlight C. rocks D. rainfall
____ involves the cultivation of crops and rearing of animals simultaneously on the same piece of farmland. A. Mixed cropping B. Mixed farming C. Bushfallowing D. Pastoral farming
The animal dungs and droppings are used as ………to improve the soil fertility for the crops. A. inorganic manure B. organic manure C. moisture D. mulch
Which of the following is not a sedimentary rock? A. mica B. sandstone C. limestone D. dolomite
Granite is ——— rock A. igneous B. sedimentary C. metamorphic D. weathered
Schist is formed from A. shale B. sandstone C. quartzite D. coal
A metamorphic limestone is A. marble B. gneiss C. schist D. shale
The type of rock formed from molten magma is known as_ A. sedimentary B. schist C. igneous D. sandstone
The attachment of water to rock minerals resulting in chemical alternation of the minerals is termed A. carbonation B. hydration C. hydrolysis D. solution
The reaction of rock with oxygen from the atmosphere which eventually weakens the soil is A. carbonation B. oxidation C. hydrolysis D. solution
Which of the following is not a soil organism that disintegrates rock particles A. termite B. earthworm C. cattle D. millipede
____ is defined as the disintegration of rocks into smaller particles to form soil. A. Chemical reaction B. Weather C. Weathering D. Breaking down
Which of these is not an agent of physical weathering A. ice B. water C. animal D. temperature
The average weather condition of a place over a period of time is referred to as__A. Climate B. Vegetation C. Biotic factor D. Humidity
Which of these is not a climatic factor of soil formation? A. Temperature B. Wind C. Humidity D. Erosion
The following are biotic factors influencing soil formation except A. Termites activities B. soil pH C. Microorganism D. Tillage activities
The shape of the ground in relation to the underlying rock of the earth surface is known as _____A. slope B. disintegration C. topography D. weathering
Which of the following is not a factor of soil formation? A. Topography B. Vegetation C .Parent material D. Weathering
Primary tillage is otherwise known as___(a) harrowing (b) ploughing (c) ridging (d) stumping
Secondary tillage is otherwise known as ____ A. harrowing B. ploughing C. mulching D. stumping
The operation that follows harrowing is ___(a) ridging (b) stumping (c) clearing (d) layout
Stumping is carried out with the following except__(a) gun (b) cutlass (c) bulldozer (d) axe
Which of the following operations come first? (a) tillage (b) ridges (c) stumping (d) harvesting
Which of these operations involve the removal of left over parts of plants in the soil? (a) tillage (b) stumping (c) harrowing (d) ridging
Which farm operation involves the breaking or turning of the soil? (a) stumping (b) ridging (c) tillage (d) harrowing
Which of these farm operations involves the division of plots for farm work? (a) ridging (b) harrowing (c) tillage (d) farm layout
____allows easy penetration of roots into the soil (a) harrowing (b) tillage (c) stumping (d) land clearing
One of the following is not a basic consideration in planting operation (a) planting space (b) planting depth (c) planting time (d) seed pod
The distance between two sown seeds/plants is____ (a) planting space (b) time (c) planting depth (d) planting seed
Some seeds are raised in the nursery because___(a) the seedlings are weak (b) the seedlings are green (c) the seedlings love the nursery (d) the seedlings can get enough sunshine
This is the distance of the sown seed in the soil (a) planting time (b) planting depth (c) spacing (d) number of seeds
The covering of soil surface with vegetative material is known as __(a) weeding (b) thining (c) mulching (d) supplying
This is the removal of unwanted plants on the farm (a) weeding (b) thining (c) mulching (d) supplying
This is the removal of excess and weak seedling from the seed bed (a) weeding (b) thinning (c) supplying (d) mulching
Correct planting population can be maintained by____(a) thinning (b) supplying (c) weeding (d) mulching
Which of these is not an organic manure? (a) compost (b) farmyard manure (c) green manure (d) ammonium nitrate
The growing of crops ( legumes) and ploughing of the same into the soil as soon as It flowers is called___(a) compost (b) farmyard manuring (c) green manuring (d) yellow manuring
Which of these manure is eaces or dropping of animals usually used in making___(a) compost (b) farmyard manure (c) green manure (d) inorganic manure
Legumes that produce edible seeds are called___(a) pulses (b) spices (c) grains (d) cereals
The following are cultural practices of yam cultivation except (a) thinning (b) staking (c) mulching (d) weeding
The following are importance of mulching in yam cultivation except (a) reduce soil temperature (b) conserve soil moisture (c) prevent pests attack (d) prevent yam rot
Cowpea processing involves the following except (a) Threshing (b) sun drying (c) parboiling (d) winnowing
Rice processing include the following except (a) Threshing (b) winnowing (c) fermentation (d) parboiling
Methods of preserving fish includes the following except (a) drying (b) smoking (c) salting (d) soaking
The horizontal layers are called___(a) zonal (b) horizons (c) profile (d) series
____is the relative proportion of the various particles of the soil (a) soil structure (b) soil PH (c) Soil texture (d) soil profile
The D-Horizon is also called____ (a) bedrock (b) parent material (c) top soil (d) sub soil
An example of Igneous rock is ___(a) granite (b) limestone (c) coal (d) sand stone

SSS 1 Agriculture Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.A 3.C 4.B 5.B

6.A 7.A 8.A 9.A 10.C

11.B 12.B 13.C 14.C 15.C

16.A 17.D 18.B 19.C 20.D

21.B 22.A 23.A 24.A 25.C

26.B 27.C 28.D 29.B 30.D

31.A 32.A 33.B 34.C 35.A

36.B 37.A 38.D 39.C 40.B

41.A 42.A 43.B 44.D 45.C

46.D 47.B 48.C 49.A 50.A

THEORY

1a. What is a Rock?

1b. State three types of rock

1c. State four characteristics of sedimentary rocks

2. Define the following terms

(i). Mulching

(ii). Staking

(iii). Thinning

(iv). Irrigation

(v). Moulding

3. State five (5) factors of Soil formation

4a. What is rock weathering?

4b. Mention three (3) Process of rock weathering

4c. List and discuss three (3) agents of one of the processes mentioned above.

SS1 Marketing Examination Question For Second Term

SENIOR CLASS ONE ( S.S.1)

MARKETING

2^ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

____ is treated as the King in a business (a) producer (b) seller (c) customer (d) consumer
One of these is not a factors of consumer behaviour (a) social (c) cultural (c) personal (d) occupation
____characters is often based on market size, region and climate (a) geographic (b) demo-graphic (c) behaviouralistic (d) psychographic
____is a combination of buyers and sellers (a) company (b) trader (c) market (d) business enterprise
____is an individual who buys product or service for personal use (a) seller (b) customer (c) producer (d) consumer
Consumer can be influenced by marketing and advertisement True / False
The study of ___helps firms and organization to improve their marketing strategies (a) market (b) buyers (c) consumers (d) producers
The following are examples of social factors influencing consumer behaviour except__(a) family (b) roles and status (c) personality (d) groups
The occupation of an individual plays a significant role in influencing his/her buying decision True / False
____needs and wants are being studied for making any product (a) customer (b) users (c) seller (d) None of the above
Culture is defined as the ____ of behaviour and social relations that characterize a society and separate it from others (a) ways (b) patterns (c) method (d) part
____ is the changes in an individuals behaviour arising from experience (a) personality (b) perception (c) learning (d) motivation
All of these except one is not a factor that influence organizational buying behaviour (a) internal (b) interpersonal and individual (c) external (d) competition
Cultural factors does not have a significant effect on an individual’s buying decision True / False
We can easily understand ___importance if we look around our environment (a) consumer behaviour (b) seller (c) customer (d) None of the above
The following are three distinct roles played by customer except one __(a) buyer (b) user (c) seller (d) payer
The _____ sell goods and services to the buyer in exchange of money (a) manufacturer (b) sellers (c) customer (d) All of the above
There are ____types of market (a) 10 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6
Consumer purchases goods and services for the following reasons except____(a) re-sell (b) reproduce another (c) personal consumption (d) All of the above
_____ is the person who consume a product (a) producer (b) buyer (c) customer (d) consumer
It is the_____ of an individual which decides the way he/she behaves (a) culture (b) job (c) family (d) All of the above
People change the goods and service they buy over their lifetime True / False
There are ____ stages to the consumer buying decision process (a) 10 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 2
The following except one are personal factors affecting consumers’ buying behaviour (a) economic situation (b) personality (c) occupation (d) None of the above
In_____ market, individuals and companies purchases goods and services for some use other than personal consumption (a) general (b) individual (c) organizations (d) consumer
The buying decision of organization are influence by____ factors geographic (b) environment (c) market (d) organizational
Government are not huge customer of all kinds of product True / False
Company marketing department usually try to distinguish between heavy, medium and ___ users (a) small (b) lower (c) light (d) center
The following are internal factors except one (a) organizational structure (b) manpower skills (c) perception (d) technological levels
Close relationships and service are required in organizational buying behaviour True / False

SECTION – THEORY

Answer three questions only

1i. What is Organizational Buying behaviour?

1ii. State the factors that influence organizational buying behaviour with three example each

2i. Differentiate between Consumer market and Organizational market

2ii. State three each of their characteristics and types

3i. Define Consumer behaviour

3ii. State the four factors influencing consumer behaviour with examples

4i. Explain Organizational Market

4ii. State Four (4) Stages of the Consumer buying process.

Agricultural Science SS1 Examination Questions For Second Term

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

Agricultural Science Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY

Biology SS1 Examination Questions For Second Term

Biology Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

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SSS 1 Chemistry Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY

ANSWER

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SECTION A:

SSS 1 Civic Education Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

SECTION B THEORY PART

SS1 Commerce Examination Questions For Second Term

SECTION A:

THEORY

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SECTION B- THEORY

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THEORY

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SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

SSS 1 Economics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

SECTION B (THEORY PART)

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SSS 1 English Studies Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

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SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

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SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

SSS 1 Further Maths Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY

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SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

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THEORY

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SECTION: THEORY

SS1 Literature in English Examination Questions For Second Term

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

SSS 1 Literature Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY-

SS1 Marketing Examination Questions For Second Term

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

THEORY

SSS 1 Marketing Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

SS1 Mathematics Examination Questions For Second Term

SECTION A:

SSS 1 Mathematics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY

SOLUTION

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SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

SSS 1 Physics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY

SOLUTIONS

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